We’ve developed the first-ever complete set of worked solutions for the IMAT 2024 exam, carefully designed to support students aiming to succeed in the IMAT 2025. These solutions follow the official 2024 exam structure, assessment style, and offer detailed, step-by-step explanations for every question. The IMAT 2024 included 9 questions in logical reasoning, problem-solving, and reading comprehension, 23 in biology, 15 in chemistry, and 13 in mathematics and physics. Whether you’re reviewing past papers or building confidence for your upcoming exam, this resource is your ultimate guide to mastering the IMAT.
Correct Answer: [D] Virginia Wolf
The author of the novel “To the Lighthouse” is Virginia Woolf. Her other famous novels are Mrs. Dalloway, Orlando, The waves, and A Room of One’s Own.
One of the Mary Shelley famous novels is “Frankenstein or the Modern Prometheus”
Emily Dickinson is primarily a poet. The famous collections of her poetry include: “ The Complete Poems of Emily Dickinson “
Jane Austen is the author of the famous novel “ Pride and Prejudice”
Agatha Christie’s distinct and famous novel is “The Murder of Roger Ackroyd”
Correct Answer: (A) Since antiquity, mathematics has been characterized by abstractness and generality.
To answer this question, break down the paragraph into different parts.
- The first sentence indicates that symbols for numbers existed in ancient times.
(This rules out option C) - The second one suggests that the abstractness and generality were specific to the Greek era, not ancient time.
(This rules out option E) - Then, it expresses that mathematics evolved slowly and deliberately.
(This rules out option E) - After that, it suggests that earlier mathematics lacked generality and abstraction, and pre-Greek mathematics were not communicated in a structured or methodical way.
(This rules out option B) - And lastly, it presumed that ancient mathematics was practical and application-focused.
(This rules out option D)
Thus, the only option that cannot be inferred from the text is the option A.
Correct Answer: (C) The Kingdom of France and the Kingdom of England
The Hundred Years' War (1337–1453) was a series of conflicts primarily fought between the Kingdom of France and the Kingdom of England over claims to the French throne and territorial disputes.
France ultimately won the war, driving the English out of nearly all their territories in France except for Calais, which was later lost in 1558.
Correct Answer: (E) The deeds of Aeneas were sung by Virgil.
Passive verbs have a pattern verb-to-be followed by the past principle of the main verb. Only option E has the correct pattern.
Correct Answer: (A) 25%
Given: Pass mark is a mark higher than 5.
Thus, pass marks = 6, 7, 8, 9, 10
Candidates who passed the test = 6 (1 + 2 + 2 + 1)
Total candidates who sat the test = 24
Percentage of the candidates who passed the test =
(6 ÷ 24) × 100% = 25%
Correct Answer: (E) 4%
Participants who will receive a prize = 12% of 1500 =
(12 ÷ 100) × 1500 = 180 participants (180 pens)
The number of silver-plated pens is twice the number of gold-plated ones.
Thus, silver pen : gold pen = 2 : 1
Since the total number of pens is 180, according to the given ratio, let x be the number of gold pens.
2x + x = 180
3x = 180
x = 60
Thus, number of gold pens = 60
Probability that Shelly will receive a gold pen = (60 ÷ 1500) × 100% = 4%
Correct Answer: (B) 28%
Let x be the original price.
After a 10% discount, the price is:
x − 0.1x = 0.9x
After a 20% discount on the new price:
0.9x − 0.2(0.9x) = 0.9x − 0.18x = 0.72x
So, the final price is 72% of the original price,
which means a total discount of 28%.
Correct Answer: (E) 218
Given: Stacie builds a cube using 343 blocks. The cube is painted green on the outside.
Question: The number of blocks that have at least one side painted green.
Observations: The total blocks in the cube is 343. So, the cube is 7 × 7 × 7 (since 7³ = 343).
There are blocks entirely inside the cube and the cubes exposed outside and get painted.
Thus, only the blocks in the outer layer will be painted.
If we can find the number of interior blocks, we can solve this by subtracting it from the total blocks.
To find the number of interior blocks, if we remove one layer of blocks from the outside,
the dimensions (length, height, and width) will be reduced by 2.
Thus, Number of interior blocks = 5³ = 125
Total number of painted blocks = 343 − 125 = 218
Correct Answer: (B) Marco arrived late; therefore he did not take the train.
The statement is:
"When he takes the train, Marco always arrives at work on time."
This implies:
-
If Marco takes the train, then he will arrive on time.
- This is a conditional statement: Train → On Time
- Train → On Time
-
The statement does not imply what happens if Marco does not take the train.
- The reverse (converse) or negation is not necessarily true.
- For instance, if Marco doesn't take the train, he could arrive late or on time — we can't deduce anything about this situation. Thus, option D is false.
A) Marco arrived late; therefore he took the train.
- This suggests Late → Train, which is invalid based on the original statement.
B) Marco arrived late; therefore he did not take the train.
- This aligns with the contrapositive of the statement: Train → Late.
- If Marco was late, it must mean he didn’t take the train, because taking the train guarantees being on time.
C) Marco arrived on time; therefore he missed the train.
- This suggests On Time → Train, which contradicts the original statement.
- If Marco is on time, it could mean he took the train, so this is invalid.
D) Marco did not take the train; therefore he arrived late.
- This suggests Train → Late, which cannot be inferred from the original statement.
- Not taking the train doesn't necessarily mean Marco was late.
E) Marco took his car; therefore he arrived on time.
- There is no information about what happens if Marco takes his car, so we cannot deduce this.
Correct Answer: [A] Cellular respiration
Option A Explanation:
Cellular respiration has 4 stages which are Glycolysis, Pyruvate oxidation (formation of acetyl CoA), the citric acid cycle and the oxidative phosphorylation. The first stage occurs in the cytoplasm while the latter three stages occur in the mitochondria. Thus, this option is correct.
Option B Explanation:
Glycolysis is an anaerobic process that takes place in the cytoplasm and does not require oxygen.
Option C Explanation:
Photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts, where sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide are converted into glucose and oxygen.
Option D Explanation:
The methylation of polysaccharides mainly occurs in the Golgi apparatus, where sugars are modified before being transported or secreted.
Option E Explanation:
Microbodies are a category of organelle that includes peroxisomes. Thus, synthesis of vesicles and organelles like microbodies mostly originates from Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. It is not a function of mitochondria and does not exist in the mitochondria.
Correct Answer: [A] In the mitochondrial matrix
Option A Explanation:
The Krebs cycle, also called the citric acid cycle (CAC), is an aerobic stage of cellular respiration that occurs in the mitochondrial matrix of eukaryotic cells. Therefore, this option is correct.
Option B Explanation:
The electron transport chain, not the Krebs cycle, occurs on the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Option C Explanation:
In prokaryotic cells, the Krebs cycle occurs in the cytoplasm because they lack mitochondria. The enzymes for the cycle are located there, performing the same function as in eukaryotic mitochondria.
Option D Explanation:
Ribosomes are only responsible for the translation process that produce proteins. Thus, Krebs cycle does not occur in the large ribosomal subunit.
Option E Explanation:
In eukaryotic cells, the Krebs cycle occurs only in the mitochondrial matrix, where the needed enzymes are present, and the produced electrons can directly enter the electron transport chain for efficient energy production. Not close to the cell membrane.
Correct Answer: [B] It is a bond between a hydrogen atom and another strongly electronegative atom (such as oxygen or nitrogen) which is present in another molecule.
Option A Explanation:
Hydrogen bond is an intermolecular (Secondary) bond, not a covalent bond. Intermolecular forces are the forces of attraction or repulsion between molecules. They are weaker than chemical bonds but crucial for determining physical properties like boiling point, melting point, and solubility.
Option B Explanation:
Hydrogen bond is an intermolecular bond and it can be found between Hydrogen and other electronegative atoms which can be F, N, or O, present in another molecule as stated. Thus, this option is correct.
Option C Explanation:
In general, intermolecular bonds, including hydrogen bonds, are much weaker than intramolecular bonds, which are the strong covalent or ionic bonds that hold atoms together within a molecule. Hydrogen bonds occur only between polar molecules and do not form between non-polar molecules.
Option D Explanation:
Within the water molecule, bond between hydrogen and oxygen is a covalent bond, not a hydrogen bond. If it said the bond is between hydrogen and oxygen between water molecules, it could be true.
Option E Explanation:
Hydrogen bonds form when a hydrogen atom, covalently bonded to a highly electronegative atom like nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine, is attracted to a lone pair of electrons on another nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine atom in a different molecule. This requires a polar molecule with a hydrogen attached to N, O, or F and another nearby molecule with available lone pairs on these atoms.
Correct Answer: [D] Hexose
Option A Explanation:
Glucose is a hexose sugar with 6 carbon atoms, while pentoses have 5 carbon atoms. Examples of pentoses include ribose, found in RNA, and deoxyribose, found in DNA.
Option B Explanation:
Trioses are simple sugars with 3 carbon atoms, such as glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone, important in energy metabolism. Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone are the intermediates in the glycolysis process. Glucose, having 6 carbon, is a hexose, not a triose.
Option C Explanation:
Tetroses are monosaccharides with four carbon atoms. They include aldotetroses like erythrose and ketotetroses like erythrulose. Tetroses are less common but play roles in some metabolic pathways.
Option D Explanation:
Hexoses are monosaccharides with six carbon atoms, like glucose, fructose, and galactose. They are important energy sources and building blocks in metabolism.
Option E Explanation:
Nonoses are monosaccharides with nine carbon atoms. An example is sialic acid (N-acetylneuraminic acid), which is important in cell signaling and found on the surfaces of animal cells.
Correct Answer: [C] Ribose
Option A Explanation:
Fructose is a hexose sugar with six carbon atoms and is classified as a ketose due to its ketone group. It occurs naturally in fruits, honey, and some vegetables and is sweeter than glucose. Unlike ribose, fructose is not part of RNA structure.
Option B Explanation:
Glycerol is a three-carbon alcohol with three hydroxyl groups, making it highly water-soluble. It serves as the backbone of triglycerides and phospholipids, where fatty acids attach. Glycerol is not present in the structure of RNA molecules.
Option C Explanation:
The monomer found in RNA is the nucleotide, which consists of ribose as the sugar unit, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. Ribose is a five-carbon aldopentose sugar. Unlike RNA, DNA contains deoxyribose, a similar sugar that lacks one oxygen atom.
Option D Explanation:
Lactose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose linked by a β-1,4-glycosidic bond. It is naturally found in milk and dairy products and is broken down in the body by the enzyme lactase into its monosaccharide components for absorption.
Option E Explanation:
Glucose is a hexose monosaccharide with six carbon atoms, classified as an aldose because it has an aldehyde group. It is a primary source of energy for cells and is found in many foods. Glucose is also a building block of polysaccharides like starch, glycogen, and cellulose.
Correct Answer: [D] They are the proteins that transfer molecules and ions across the plasma membrane
Option A Explanation:
Carrier proteins are a kind of transport proteins that exist on the plasma membrane, and mRNA is transported by different mechanisms, not by carrier proteins.
Option B Explanation:
Proteins that break down phospholipids in the plasma membrane is the phospholipidase enzyme. Carrier proteins only carry materials across the cell membrane.
Option C Explanation:
Proteins that phosphorylate enzymes in the plasma membrane are the kinase enzymes. Carrier proteins only carry materials across the membrane.
Option D Explanation:
Carrier proteins are membrane proteins that transport specific molecules or ions across the cell membrane by binding to them and changing shape to move them across.
Option E Explanation:
Carrier proteins do not transport tRNA or any RNA molecules, which are moved by different nuclear export mechanisms.
Correct Answer: [A] ATP
Option A Explanation:
Cells harvest the chemical energy stored in organic molecules and use it to generate ATP, the molecule that drives most cellular work. Thus, this option is correct.
Option B Explanation:
FAD+ is an energy carrier molecule produced during the Krebs cycle which donates the electrons to the electron transport chain, contributing to the production of ATP, but it is not the cell’s main energy currency—that role belongs to ATP. FADH2 is the reduced form of FAD+.
Option C Explanation:
NADH is an energy carrier molecule produced during glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and other metabolic pathways. NADH is an electron carrier, not the direct energy currency—that role is played by ATP.
Option D Explanation:
Creatine is a compound derived from amino acids. It serves as an energy storage and transfer in the tissues. However, it is not the energy currency of the cell.
Option E Explanation:
NADPH is an electron carrier mainly involved in anabolic (biosynthetic) reactions, such as fatty acid synthesis and the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis.
A document has been prepared to include the images and diagrams related to the questions, placed directly below the worked solutions for clarity and reference.
Correct Answer: [E] An exergonic reaction is a chemical reaction that releases energy
Option A Explanation:
Lipolysis is the process of breaking down triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids; it is not related to ATP hydrolysis.
Option B Explanation:
Oxidation-reduction reactions involve the transfer of electrons, but ATP hydrolysis does not involve electron transfer.
Option C Explanation:
Condensation is a reaction where two molecules join together with the release of water, while ATP hydrolysis is the opposite—it uses water to break a bond.
Option D Explanation:
Endergonic reactions require an input of energy, but ATP hydrolysis is exergonic because it releases energy.
Option E Explanation:
One ATP molecule releases approximately 7.3 kcal/mol (~30.5 kJ/mol) of energy upon hydrolysis, which can be used for cellular work or dissipated as heat, depending on the process. Thus, this option is true.
Correct Answer: [A] Of eukaryotes
Option A Explanation:
Intercellular compartmentalization involves organization of different cell types into specialized functions that collectively support the organism’s physiological processes. Since it contains multiple cell types to organize into specific tissues, it only occurs in multicellular organisms. Thus, this option is true.
Option B Explanation:
Viruses lead a type of borrowed life, relying entirely on host cells for replication, and are not considered true cells. As a result, they lack cellular structures and do not possess intercellular compartmentalization.
Option C Explanation:
Bacteria, which are prokaryotes, are typically unicellular organisms. Therefore, they lack intercellular compartmentalization, as they consist of a single cell without internal membrane-bound compartments.
Option D Explanation:
Prokaryotes are typically unicellular organisms. Therefore, there is no intercellular compartmentalisation.
Option E Explanation:
Algae can be both unicellular and multicellular. However, multicellular algae usually lack true tissue differentiation. Therefore, there is no intercellular compartmentalization.
Correct Answer: [B] The centriole
Option A Explanation:
The nucleus is supported by the nuclear lamina, made of intermediate filaments, not microtubules. Microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton outside the nucleus and do not form part of its structure.
Option B Explanation:
Centrioles are cylindrical cellular structures composed primarily of microtubules. They are typically arranged in a characteristic "9+0" pattern, where nine triplets of microtubules are arranged in a circle. Thus, this option is true.
Option C Explanation:
The Golgi apparatus is not composed of microtubules; it is made of stacks of flattened membrane-bound sacs called cisternae. However, microtubules help position and transport vesicles to and from the Golgi, but they are not part of its structure.
Option D Explanation:
The nucleolus is not composed of microtubules. It is a dense region inside the nucleus made of RNA, DNA, and proteins, where ribosome subunits are assembled. Microtubules are not part of its structure.
Option E Explanation:
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is not composed of microtubules. It is made of a network of membrane-bound tubules and sacs. While microtubules help position and organize the ER within the cell, they are not part of the ER’s structure itself.
Correct Answer: [E] An outer membrane and a very selective inner membrane
Option A Explanation:
“A very selective membrane” part is correct for inner membrane but the latter is incorrect. On the inner membrane, there are proteins that take part in the electron transport chain.
Option B Explanation:
Mitochondria typically have two membranes: outer membrane and inner membrane. Each membrane is composed of phospholipid bilayer. Thus, this option is false.
Option C Explanation:
Mitochondria have two membranes: an outer membrane, which is smooth and encloses the organelle, and an inner membrane, which is folded into cristae to increase the surface area for energy production. Between these two membranes is the intermembrane space, which plays a role in cellular respiration.
Option D Explanation:
Mitochondria have two membranes: an outer membrane, which is smooth and not very selective, but the inner membrane is more selective.
Option E Explanation:
Mitochondria have an outer membrane, which is permeable to small molecules, and a very selective inner membrane, which controls the passage of ions and molecules and is folded into cristae to enhance energy production.
Correct Answer: [A] The sequence of three nucleotides found on the tRNA corresponding to a codon on the mRNA.
Option A Explanation:
Anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides on a tRNA molecule that is complementary to a codon on mRNA. During translation, the anticodon pairs with the mRNA codon, ensuring the correct amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain.
Option B Explanation:
A sequence of three nucleotides transcribed from the mRNA is a codon, not an anticodon.
Option C Explanation:
This option describes a DNA codon.
Option D Explanation:
rRNA has neither codon nor anticodon. Anticodon is on tRNA and does not directly bind amino acids (amino acids bind to the other end of tRNA).
Option E Explanation:
Sequence of three mRNA nucleotides is a mRNA codon.
Correct Answer: [D] RNA and proteins
Option A Explanation:
DNA is not a component of ribosomes. In eukaryotic cells, DNA can be found in the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Option B Explanation:
Both DNA and lipids are not components of ribosomes.
Option C Explanation:
DNA is not a component of ribosomes. In eukaryotic cells, DNA can be found in the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Option D Explanation:
A ribosome is composed of a large and a small subunit, each containing a combination of proteins and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Therefore, this statement is correct.
Option E Explanation:
DNA is not a component of ribosomes.
Correct Answer: [C] a double phospholipid layer with hydrophobic tails facing inward and the presence of integral and peripheral proteins
Option A Explanation:
The Cell membrane is composed of double layer of phospholipids embedded by proteins and cholesterol. Triglyceride is involved as a component of phospholipid, and cholesterol is found wedged between phospholipid molecules. Both of these molecules does not exist as a layer. Thus, this option is false.
Option B Explanation:
Membrane proteins are embedded in the fluid matrix of the lipid bilayer. They do not exist as a separate layer. Thus, this option is false.
Option C Explanation:
The cell membrane consists of a double phospholipid layer (bilayer) with hydrophobic tails facing inward and hydrophilic heads facing outward, along with integral and peripheral proteins embedded or attached to the membrane.
Option D Explanation:
There is not a glycoprotein layer in the latest fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane. Glycoproteins and glycolipids can be found on the surface of the cell membrane toward the ECF.
Option E Explanation:
Fatty acids and globular proteins does not exist as a separate layer. Fatty acids can be found as a component of phospholipid in the phospholipid bilayer and globular proteins are embedded in the fluid matrix of the lipid bilayer. Thus, this option is false.
Correct Answer: [B] It is the process by which mRNA is read and converted into a specific sequence of amino acids.
Option A Explanation:
This option describes the process of reverse transcription. Reverse transcription is the process where RNA is converted into DNA using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This occurs in some viruses, like retroviruses (e.g., HIV), allowing their RNA genome to be integrated into the host’s DNA.
Option B Explanation:
This option correctly describes the process of translation. Translation is the process of protein synthesis, where the ribosome reads mRNA codons and uses tRNA to bring matching amino acids, forming a polypeptide chain. It takes place in the cytoplasm.
Option C Explanation:
This option does not describe the process of translation.
Option D Explanation:
tRNA anticodons pair only with codons on mRNA during translation, but this alone does not fully explain the entire process of protein synthesis.
Option E Explanation:
This option describes the process of transcription, not translation. Transcription is the process where DNA is used as a template to produce messenger RNA (mRNA). This occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and is carried out by the enzyme RNA polymerase, which builds the mRNA strand complementary to the DNA template.
Correct Answer: [A] Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
Option A Explanation:
The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers extending throughout the cytoplasm. The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is composed of three types of molecular structures: microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filament. Thus, the given option correctly describes it.
Option B Explanation:
Microtubule is a component of the cytoskeleton but myosin and filamin are not.
Option C Explanation:
Microtubule is a component of the cytoskeleton but dynein and myosin are not.
Option D Explanation:
All of these mentioned proteins are not principal components of the cytoskeleton.
Option E Explanation:
Mentioned fibres are not the principal components of the cytoskeleton.
Correct Answer: [C] one of several alternative forms of a gene
Option A Explanation:
This option does not describes the term “allele”
Option B Explanation:
This option describes a triplet code, not the term “allele”
Option C Explanation:
An allele is a variant form of a gene found at a specific location (locus) on a chromosome. Different alleles can result in variations in inherited traits, such as eye color or blood type. Thus, This option correctly describes the term “allele”.
Option D Explanation:
This option does not describes the term “allele”
Option E Explanation:
A set of coding DNA triplets is called a codon, not an allele.
Correct Answer: [E] Dominant
Option A Explanation:
In associated genes, the expression of one allele is associated by another allele. Thus, it is evident that an allele cannot certainly express itself in any condition.
Option B Explanation:
If a character is determined by the expression of multiple genes, it is not possible that one allele certainly expresses itself.
Option C Explanation:
Mutated alleles means the allele is not in its normal state to be expressed. Thus, it cannot certainly express itself.
Option D Explanation:
For a recessive allele to be able to certainly express itself, it needs to be in homozygous condition.
Option E Explanation:
According to the third concept of the Mendel’s model, it is described that, if the two alleles at a locus differ (in heterozygous condition), then one, the dominant allele, determines the organism’s appearance; the other, the recessive allele, has no noticeable effect on the organism’s appearance. Thus, for a allele to be certainly expressed, it needs to be a completely dominant allele.
Correct Answer: E) Alterations in the genetic information of a cell
Option A Explanation:
This refers to changes in how cells divide, such as errors in mitosis or meiosis, but this is not the definition of mutation itself.
Option B Explanation:
Changes in how substances are actively transported across membranes, which is not related to mutations directly.
Option C Explanation:
Changes in enzymes during fertilisation or early development; this is not what defines a mutation.
Option D Explanation:
Changes in how the cell produces or uses energy, which might be a result of a mutation, but this is not the definition of mutation itself.
Option E Explanation:
Mutations are permanent changes in the DNA sequence, altering the genetic information of a cell, which can affect proteins and traits.
Correct Answer: [A] leads to the synthesis of polypeptide chains from mRNA
Option A Explanation:
This option correctly describes the process of translation. Translation is the process that leads to the synthesis of polypeptide chains from mRNA, where ribosomes read the mRNA codons and tRNA brings the corresponding amino acids to build the protein.
Option B Explanation:
In eukaryotic cells, translation process occurs in the cytoplasm.
Option C Explanation:
Translation leads to the synthesis of proteins from RNA. The process that RNA molecules are synthesised from the DNA is known as transcription process.
Option D Explanation:
Transcription is a process in which mRNA is synthesised from DNA. Translation is the process that comes after transcription that leads to the synthesis of proteins from RNA. Thus, it can be seen that these two processes are not similar to each other.
Option E Explanation:
Translation occurs in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. This is one of the fundamental processes of gene expression in organisms.
Correct Answer: [A] GGCAATAACT
Option A Explanation:
According to the Chargaff’s rule of base equivalences and the Watson and Crick model, it is reasoned that Adenine pairs with Thymine and Guanine pairs with Cytosine. Therefore, on the complementary strand, GGC AAT AAC T sequence will be found.
Option B Explanation:
Bases mentioned are not complementary to the sequence in the question.
Option C Explanation:
Bases mentioned are not complementary to the sequence in the question.
Option D Explanation:
Bases mentioned are not complementary to the sequence in the question.
Option E Explanation:
Bases mentioned are not complementary to the sequence in the question.
Correct Answer: [B] DNA is used as a template to synthesise new DNA molecules
Option A Explanation:
RNA does not generally replicate itself in most biological systems.
Option B Explanation:
DNA replicates typically in the semiconservative model, in which the two strands of the parental DNA molecule separate, and each functions as a template for synthesis of a new, complementary DNA strand. Thus, this option is true.
Option C Explanation:
This option describes Mitosis or Meiosis process, not replication.
Option D Explanation:
This option describes the Translation process, not replication.
Option E Explanation:
This option describes the Transcription process, not replication.
Correct Answer: [C] A functional unit composed of a group of adjacent genes, coordinately controlled, and of DNA sequences with regulatory functions
Option A Explanation:
Together, the operator, the promoter, and the genes they control (the entire stretch of DNA required for expression of a specific gene) constitute an operon. Thus, it does not contain proteins.
Option B Explanation:
The group of genes involved in operon unit are dependent on each other. For example, in trp repressor, if a repressor binds to the operator, it blocks attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter and thereby prevents transcription of the genes.
Option C Explanation:
It correctly describes the structure and function of operon unit.
Option D Explanation:
Operon unit is discovered as a basic mechanism for the control of gene expression in bacteria, in the transcription stage, by interfering with the transcription of DNA genes. Thus, the operon unit solely consists of DNA segments.
Option E Explanation:
This option describes the opposite of the function of Operon unit which is to adjust the production level of certain enzymes.
This is a question about the Dalton’s law of partial pressure.
Dalton’s Law, or the Law of Partial Pressures, states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
Given : the mixture contains 3 types of gases which are Nitrogen, Carbon dioxide and Oxygen. Total pressure is given. Mole values of individual gases are given.
PX = Xn · Ptotal
ntotal = nN₂ + nCO₂ + nO₂ = 0.3 mol + 0.5 mol + 0.4 mol = 1.2 mol
Xn = nN₂ / ntotal = 0.3 mol / 1.2 mol = 0.25
PN₂ = XN₂ · Ptotal = 0.25 · 2.4 = 0.6 atm