IMAT 2021 Answers & Worked Solution

Full explanation

The underlying assumption of the argument is that the value we place on food influences how much of it we waste. The argument compares bread (which is wasted the most) to alcohol (which is wasted the least) and other foods in terms of how much is thrown away.

Option A Explanation:

A) Bread is a low-quality food.

This is not necessarily true, and the argument does not make a claim about the quality of bread. The focus is on how much we value different foods, not their quality.

Option B Explanation:

B) We should be more moderate when it comes to buying bread.

This is a suggestion, not an assumption of the argument.

Option C Explanation:

C) The more expensive a food or drink is, the less likely it is that it will be wasted.

This might be true in some cases, but the argument does not explicitly focus on the cost of food or drink, only the value placed on them.

Option D Explanation:

D) Bread goes stale faster so is more likely to be thrown away.

While this could explain some of the waste, the argument does not mention the freshness or shelf life of bread as the cause for its higher waste rate.

Option E Explanation:

E) The main reason why we throw food away is that we do not value it much.

This is the best assumption. The argument suggests that the more we value something, the less we waste it (alcohol is thrown away the least, while bread, which is seemingly less valued, is wasted the most).

Full explanation

First, we can arrange the 6 men in a circle, which creates 6 spaces between each pair of men.

Next, we need to place the 14 women in these 6 spaces. To do so, we must place at least 2 women in each space, using up 12 women in total. This leaves 2 women, who must be seated in spaces that already contain women. As a result, these 2 women will not have any men sitting directly next to them.

Thus, 2 women will have no man sitting directly next to them.

Full explanation

To solve this, we need to determine which state's name can be read correctly from both the front and the back when placed vertically on a sign board.

Option A Explanation:

A) Montana

The letters "M, O, T and A" are symmetric, but "N" is not, so this would not work.

Option B Explanation:

B) Idaho

The letters "I, A, H and O" are symmetric, but "D," is not. This would not work.

Option C Explanation:

C) Alabama

The letters "A, and M" are symmetric, but "L and B" are not. This would not work.

Option D Explanation:

D) Oklahoma

The letters "O, A, H and M" are symmetric, but "K and L" are not. This would not work.

Option E Explanation:

E) Hawaii

All the letters "H," "A," "W," "I" are symmetric. Thus, this is the only state whose name can be read the same from both front and back

Full explanation

The argument explicitly presents its main conclusion at the end of the paragraph, following a discussion of supporting reasons: "These factors would indicate that young performers need further protection by law."

Challenges such as stress, rejection, and the loss of childhood in the entertainment industry highlight the need for stronger legal protections for young performers.

Option A Explanation:

A) Young people feel rejection, disappointment and failure more because they lack wider experience.

This is a supporting premise, not the conclusion. It explains why rejection is harder for young people.

Option B Explanation:

B) Young performers are robbed of their childhood by the demands of performing.

This is also a supporting point---it describes the negative impact of performing, but it doesn't state what should be done about it.

Option C Explanation:

C) Young people can be suddenly thrust into the limelight.

This is a background fact rather than the conclusion.

Option D Explanation:

D) Young people have been protected from exploitation by the entertainment industry for many years.

This is an introductory statement setting the context, not the main claim being argued.

Option E Explanation:

E) Young performers need further protection by law.

This best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument.

Full explanation

According to the survey,

- 10% of the cats preferred Moggiemeat.

- 20% of the cats preferred Fuss-a-Puss.

- 40% of the cats preferred Yummy Paws.

- 6 cats did not care which food they ate.

- 27 cats would not touch any of these foods.

The sum of cats with clear preference is 10% + 20% + 40% = 70%

The remaining 30% is made up of 6 indifferent cats, and the 27 cats that refused to eat any (total 33)

Since 30% corresponds to 33 cats,

total number of cats x 3/10 =33

total number of cats = 33 x 10/3 =110 cats

Full explanation

The argument assumes a causal relationship between outdoor activities and high self-esteem: it suggests that engaging in outdoor activities leads to higher self-esteem. However, it fails to consider the reverse possibility---that people who already have high self-esteem are more likely to engage in outdoor activities in the first place.

This is a correlation vs. causation fallacy, where the argument assumes that because two things are related, one must be causing the other.

Option A Explanation:

A) It assumes that high levels of self-confidence or self-esteem are all that are needed for a person to enjoy good mental health.

The argument does not assume that self-confidence is the only factor for mental well-being---it simply promotes outdoor activities as a solution.

Option B Explanation:

B) It ignores the likelihood that many people with varying levels of self-confidence would benefit from the advice of a mental health professional.

While professional mental health support is important, the argument's flaw is not about disregarding therapy but rather about making a faulty causal assumption.

Option C Explanation:

C) It ignores the fact that not everyone with low self-esteem has the desire to go for a run or a walk outside.

The argument's flaw is not about individual preferences but about the incorrect assumption regarding causality.

Option D Explanation:

D) It assumes that people who manage to appear 'perfect' in the different parts of their lives will not suffer from problems with self-confidence.

The argument does not claim that appearing "perfect" eliminates self-confidence issues.

Option E Explanation:

E) It ignores the possibility that people with higher self-esteem might be more inclined to take part in outdoor activities.

This correctly describes the flaw in the argument.

Full explanation

We have to find proper card type first that fits all the needs.

Simon wants 2-fold, no glitter cards. Thus, we can exclude the Robins, Village scene and Cartoon designs.

Between religious and father xmas card types, the former card type will cost 12.6 in total for 35 cards and the latter will cost 12.4 in total.

Thus, the lowest amount of money that Simon could spend on these cards is C) £12.40

Full explanation

- X = Attending a particular school.

- Y = Being offered a place at the local universities.

The argument states that if you attend a specific school (X), you are guaranteed an offer from the local universities (Y). If you don't attend that school (you don't have X), you are not guaranteed an offer (you don't get Y).

This reasoning can be restated as:

- If X, then Y.

- Since you do not have X, you are not guaranteed Y.

Option A Explanation:

A) In our country, everyone who becomes a teacher must have a university degree. Since you do not have a degree, you are not qualified to become a teacher.

If you think of having a university degree as X, becoming a teacher is Y. In this case, X cannot guaranteed Y. It is stated as just one of the necessary qualification. Thus, this statement does not parallel the stated reasoning.

Option B Explanation:

B) Everyone who has a free bus pass is entitled to travel on buses after 9:30 am without payment. Since it is after 9:30 am and you have a free bus pass, you do not have to pay for this bus journey.

If you have a free bus pass (X), then you can travel without payment (Y).

Since you have a bus pass (X), you do not have to pay (Y).

This doesn't fit the original statement reasoning.

Option C Explanation:

C) The only way to stand for election to Parliament is to be nominated by voters in a geographical constituency. Since you have not been nominated, you cannot stand for election.

If being nominated is X, then standing an election is Y.

The second statement says that since no X, there is no Y.

This reasoning is similar, but the focus is on exclusion based on a necessary condition, not on a guarantee like option A.

Option D Explanation:

D) Everyone who becomes a student at our college has achieved a high score in their high school examinations. You have a high score, and therefore you are sure to be accepted as a student at our college.

If you have a high score (X), you are accepted as a student (Y).

Since you have a high score (X), you are accepted (Y).

This doesn't fit the original statement reasoning.

Option E Explanation:

E) Everyone over the age of 60 is entitled to a bus pass, which gives them free travel on buses after 9:30 am. Since you are younger than 60, you are not entitled to free bus travel.

If you are over 60 (X), you are entitled to a bus pass (Y).

Since you are not over 60 (not X), you are not entitled to a bus pass (not Y).

This reasoning is the same structure as the original argument: a specific condition (X) leads to a guarantee (Y), and lacking the condition (not X) leads to being excluded from the guarantee (not Y).

Full explanation

The principle behind the committee's decision can be identified from the following sentence mentioned in the paragraph "The committee overseeing transplant decisions argued that the system it used had to be administered solely in accordance with the rationale behind its waiting writ list." In other words, it says that the committee decision is based on the waiting list which is organized according to the order of urgency.

Option A Explanation:

A) Decisions on transplants cannot be influenced by emotions.

The committee does not say anything about emotions. It only states about the waiting list and the order of Urgency. Thus, this statement is false.

Option B Explanation:

B) Decisions on transplants should include social considerations.

The committee does not say anything about social considerations. It only states about the waiting list and the order of Urgency. Thus, this statement is false.

Option C Explanation:

C) Donations between family members are not allowed.

The committee does not say anything about the donations between family members. It only states about the waiting list and the order of Urgency. Thus, this statement is false.

Option D Explanation:

D) The donor's wishes should not be considered.

The committee does not say anything about the donor's wishes. It only states about the waiting list and the order of Urgency. Thus, this statement is false.

Option E Explanation:

E) Decisions on transplants should focus on the medical need of the potential recipient.

This option correctly states the principle behind the committee's decision.

Full explanation

Reading a digital display upside down is a two-step flip, and it helps to know the rule before touching the numbers: reverse the order the digits appear in, and rotate each digit on its own axis. Most digits survive that rotation looking like themselves — 0, 1, 2, 5 and 8 all come back unchanged — but 6 and 9 swap places with each other, and 3, 4 and 7 don't turn into any digit at all. A rotated 3, in particular, comes out looking like the letter E on a seven-segment display, and that detail is what this whole question hinges on.

The narrator's clock has been turned upside down without them realising, so what they're reading is not the true time — it's the true time seen through that flip. To undo it, reverse the four digits and rotate each one: 20:50 reversed is 0, 5, 0, 2, and every one of those digits rotates to itself, so the true reading is 05:02. The clock was never faulty; it was quietly keeping perfect time from an upside-down position.

Ninety minutes is real, physical time, so the true time by the second waking is 05:02 + 1:30 = 06:32. The clock is still upside down, so to find out what the narrator actually sees now, apply the same flip again: reverse 0, 6, 3, 2 to get 2, 3, 6, 0, then rotate each one — 2 stays 2, 3 becomes that tell-tale E shape, 6 becomes 9, and 0 stays 0. That gives 2E:90, which is exactly option B.

Option A is just the original 20:50 with nothing done to it — a trap for anyone who checks that a flip happened at all but not what it actually produces. Options C, D and E each swap in a stray letter where option B's leading '2' should sit, which is what happens if the reversing and the rotating aren't both carried through consistently on every digit. A good way to sanity-check an answer like this is to flip it a second time — flip 2E:90 again and you should land right back on 20:50.

Full explanation

Option A Explanation:

A) The Bolshoi Theatre - Saint Petersburg

The Bolshoi Theatre is in Moscow, not Saint Petersburg.

Option B Explanation:

B) The Palais Garnier Opera House - Brussels

The Palais Garnier is in Paris, not Brussels.

Option C Explanation:

C) San Carlo - Venice

San Carlo (Teatro di San Carlo) is in Naples, not Venice.

Option D Explanation:

D) Metropolitan Opera House - New York

Correct. The Metropolitan Opera House (commonly called the Met) is located in New York City and is one of the world's most famous opera houses.

Option E Explanation:

E) La Fenice - Florence

La Fenice is in Venice, not Florence.

Full explanation

Francis Ford Coppola wrote and directed all three Godfather films — The Godfather (1972), The Godfather Part II (1974) and The Godfather Part III (1990) — adapting Mario Puzo's novel into what's still regarded as one of the high points of American cinema, especially the first two instalments.

The other names are tempting precisely because they all made their names in the same era and often the same genre. Brian De Palma directed Scarface, another landmark gangster film, but not this trilogy. Sergio Leone built his reputation on operatic crime epics like Once Upon a Time in America. Martin Scorsese has returned to organised crime again and again, in Goodfellas and Casino among others. Matteo Garrone directed the acclaimed Italian mafia drama Gomorrah. All five belong to the same neighbourhood of cinema — only Coppola belongs to the Godfather trilogy itself.

Full explanation

The Treaty of Paris, signed in 1951 and in force from 1952, established the European Coal and Steel Community — the first of the communities that eventually grew into today's European Union. Six countries joined at the outset: Belgium, France, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands and West Germany. Pooling coal and steel production, the industries most needed to wage war, was a deliberate way of making conflict between France and Germany not just undesirable but practically difficult.

The other treaties on this list are all genuine EU milestones, just not this one. The Treaty of Rome (1957) came next and created the European Economic Community and Euratom. The Treaty of Amsterdam (1997) and the Treaty of Nice (2001) both amended the EU's founding treaties to prepare its institutions for a larger membership. The Treaty of Lisbon (2007) is the most recent major overhaul, reshaping how the EU's institutions work today. Keeping the order straight — Paris, then Rome, then the later amending treaties — is the quickest way to place any one of them correctly.

Full explanation

Option A Explanation:

A) Maria Montessori - pedagogy

Developed the Montessori method of education.

Option B Explanation:

B) Hans Jonas - medicine

Hans Jonas was a philosopher, not a medical scholar. He is best known for his work in ethics, philosophy of biology, and technology.

Option C Explanation:

C) John Maynard Keynes - economics

Developed Keynesian economics.

Option D Explanation:

D) Max Planck - physics

Founder of quantum theory.

Option E Explanation:

E) B. F. Skinner - psychology

Known for behaviorism and operant conditioning.

Full explanation

The correct answer is:

B) Egyptian hieroglyphs

The Rosetta Stone was the key to deciphering Egyptian hieroglyphs. It was discovered in 1799 and contained the same text written in three scripts:

1. Ancient Greek

2. Demotic script (a later Egyptian script)

3. Egyptian hieroglyphs

Since scholars already understood Ancient Greek, Jean-François Champollion was able to use it to decipher the hieroglyphs in 1822, unlocking the ability to read ancient Egyptian texts.

The other options are all genuine ancient scripts or legal texts, which is exactly what makes them tempting: the Phoenician alphabet, the Sumerian language (written in cuneiform) and the Code of Hammurabi were each studied and deciphered using entirely different evidence. Ancient Greek, meanwhile, wasn't the mystery at all on the Rosetta Stone — it was the half scholars could already read, and that's precisely what made cracking the other two scripts possible.

Full explanation

A bicameral system refers to a legislature with two chambers (e.g., a Senate and a House of Representatives). A perfect bicameral system means that both chambers have equal powers in the legislative process.

Option A Explanation:

A) the form of government that assigns identical power to two institutional figures.

Incorrect. Bicameralism refers to legislatures, not institutional figures.

Option B Explanation:

B) the kind of parliamentary monarchy where monarch and parliament have the same powers.

Incorrect. This describes a government system, not bicameralism.

Option C Explanation:

C) the judicial system whereby the first sentence must be confirmed by the first round of appeal.

Incorrect. Bicameralism is about legislatures, not courts.

Option D Explanation:

D) the perfect separation of the magistrate judge and public prosecutor.

Incorrect. This relates to judicial independence, not bicameralism.

Option E Explanation:

E) the legislative procedure that assigns identical powers to the two chambers of a parliament.

Correct. This matches the definition of a perfect bicameral system.

Full explanation

Option A Explanation:

A) Vladimir Nabokov - Lolita

Lolita (1955) is Nabokov's most famous novel.

Option B Explanation:

B) Mikhail Bulgakov - Uncle Vanya

Uncle Vanya (1899) was written by Anton Chekhov, not Bulgakov.

Bulgakov is best known for The Master and Margarita (published posthumously in 1966).

Option C Explanation:

C) Leo Tolstoy - Anna Karenina

Anna Karenina (1877) is one of Tolstoy's masterpieces.

Option D Explanation:

D) Boris Pasternak - Doctor Zhivago

Doctor Zhivago (1957) is Pasternak's famous novel, for which he won the Nobel Prize.

Option E Explanation:

E) Fyodor Dostoyevsky - The Brothers Karamazov

The Brothers Karamazov (1880) is one of Dostoyevsky's most significant works.

Full explanation

The correct answer is:

B) Agriculture

FAO stands for Food and Agriculture Organization.

It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) that leads international efforts to combat hunger and improve agriculture, forestry, and fisheries worldwide. It was founded in 1945 and is headquartered in Rome, Italy.

The other options aren't real expansions of the acronym at all — Automotive, Aerospace, Aesthetics and Architecture are simply plausible-sounding A-words with no connection to this organisation. The safest way past this kind of distractor is to recall the organisation's full name first, rather than trying to guess which word fits the letter.

Full explanation

Option A Explanation:

A) Hans Wilhelm Geiger - particle detector

Hans Wilhelm Geiger developed the Geiger counter, a particle detector used to measure ionizing radiation.

Option B Explanation:

B) Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen - x-ray

Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen discovered X-rays in 1895.

Option C Explanation:

C) Dmitri Mendeleev - periodic table of elements

Dmitri Mendeleev formulated the periodic table of elements in 1869.

Option D Explanation:

D) Evangelista Torricelli - mercury barometer

Evangelista Torricelli invented the mercury barometer in 1643.

Option E Explanation:

E) Niels Bohr - electron microscope

Niels Bohr was a physicist known for his contributions to quantum mechanics and the Bohr model of the atom, but he did not invent the electron microscope. The electron microscope was developed by Ernst Ruska and Max Knoll in the 1930s.

Full explanation

The correct answer is:

A) Elena Ferrante

Elena Ferrante is the author of My Brilliant Friend (L'amica geniale in Italian), the first book in the Neapolitan Novels series.

Ferrante is a pseudonymous Italian writer, and her true identity remains unknown. The novel, published in 2011, follows the lifelong friendship between two women, Elena Greco and Lila Cerullo, set in post-war Naples.

The other four are all major contemporary novelists, just known for different acclaimed books: Kazuo Ishiguro for The Remains of the Day, Paulo Coelho for The Alchemist, Khaled Hosseini for The Kite Runner, and Ian McEwan for Atonement. None of them wrote the Neapolitan Novels.

Full explanation

Option A Explanation:

A) European Commission

Incorrect. Members are appointed by national governments.

Option B Explanation:

B) European Parliament

Correct. The European Parliament is the only institution of the European Union that is elected by direct universal suffrage. Members of the European Parliament (MEPs) are elected by citizens of EU member states every five years.

Option C Explanation:

C) Council of the European Union

Incorrect. Composed of government ministers from member states.

Option D Explanation:

D) Court of Justice of the European Union

Incorrect. Judges are appointed by member states.

Option E Explanation:

E) European Economic and Social Committee

Incorrect. Members are appointed to represent various economic and social groups.

Full explanation

Option A Explanation:

A) WTO

Correct. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is responsible for setting and enforcing trade rules between nations. It oversees international trade agreements, resolves disputes, and promotes free trade while ensuring fair competition.

Option B Explanation:

B) World Bank

Incorrect. Provides financial and technical assistance for development projects.

Option C Explanation:

C) World Economic Forum

Incorrect. A non-governmental organization that hosts discussions on global economic policies but doesn't enforce trade rules.

Option D Explanation:

D) OECD

Incorrect. It represents Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development. It focuses on economic policy coordination among member countries, not trade enforcement.

Option E Explanation:

E) IMF

Incorrect. IMF represents International Monetary Fund.

Focuses on financial stability and monetary cooperation, not trade regulations.

Full explanation

In many chemical reactions, there is a transfer of one or more electrons (e-) from one reactant to another. These electron transfers are called oxidation-reduction reactions, or redox reactions for short.

Option A Explanation:

A) a cytosine and guanine pairing

Cytosine and guanine pairing involves hydrogen bonding and electron transfer is not involved in this bonding process. Thus, this is not a redox reaction. This option is false.

Option B Explanation:

B) depolarisation of a neuron

Depolarisation of a neuron is a result of ion concentration changes. This is not a redox reaction. Thus, this option is false.

Option C Explanation:

C) glucose + glucose ⇋ maltose + water

This is a condensation reaction which does not contain electron transfer. Thus, this is not a redox reaction. This option is false.

Option D Explanation:

D) polymerisation of amino acid

Polymerisation reactions do not contain electron transfer. Thus, this is not a redox reaction. This option is false.

Option E Explanation:

E) NAD⁺+ H₂ ⇋ NADH + H⁺

In this reaction, electron is transferred from H₂ to NAD⁺, resulting in NADH and H⁺. Thus, this reaction is a redox reaction and it occurs commonly in the cellular respiration process, NAD⁺ serving as electron carrier throughout the pathway.

This option is true.

Full explanation

Proton pumps are located in the thylakoid membrane, which forms the structure of the grana in chloroplasts. These pumps play a crucial role in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, where they actively transport protons (H⁺ ions) from the stroma into the thylakoid lumen, creating a proton gradient necessary for ATP synthesis. Proton pumps are not found in the stroma, which is where the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions) occurs, nor are they found in the gap between thylakoid membranes --- this space is where H⁺ ions accumulate but not where the pumping occurs. Therefore, the correct answer is option E) 3 only, indicating the thylakoid membrane as the site of proton pumps.

Full explanation

Cholesterol, a type of steroid, is a crucial molecule in animals. It is a common component of animal cell membranes and is also the precursor from which other steroids, such as the vertebrate sex hormones, are synthesized.

Option A Explanation:

A) It maintains the fluidity of the cell membrane.

Cholesterol is a component of animal cell membrane. It helps maintain the fluidity of the membrane by acting as a buffer against temperature change: at higher temperatures it restrains phospholipid movement, preventing the membrane from becoming too fluid, while at lower temperatures it disrupts the regular packing of phospholipids, preventing the membrane from becoming too rigid or solidifying. Thus, this statement is correct.

Option B Explanation:

B) It is used to make all hormones.

Cholesterol is used to make only the vertebrate sex hormones. Other hormones are made mostly from polypeptides. Thus, this statement is false.

Option C Explanation:

C) It forms hydrogen bonds with water which stabilises the cell membrane.

Cholesterol is largely hydrophobic because it consists mainly of a nonpolar hydrocarbon structure with only a small polar hydroxyl group (-OH). While the hydroxyl group can form limited hydrogen bonds, the large nonpolar steroid ring system and hydrocarbon tail dominate its properties, making cholesterol overall hydrophobic. As a result, cholesterol cannot effectively form hydrogen bonds with water and has very low solubility in aqueous environments.

Option D Explanation:

D) It is a good source of energy because of the number of hydrogen atoms.

Cholesterol serves as a component of cell membranes and precursor of steroid hormones. It does not have a role as energy storage molecules. Thus, this option is false.

Option E Explanation:

E) It transports fatty acids around the body.

Cholesterol does not have a role as fatty acid transporter. It is lipoprotein group that transport fatty acids around the body. Thus, this option is false.

Full explanation

No. 1 pattern can occur in both autosomal dominant (homozygous) and recessive (homozygous) cases.

No. 2 pattern represents autosomal dominant disorder. This can be identified in F2 generation in which normal offspring is born from 2 polydactyly parents (heterozygous). All F2 offspring must have the disorder if this pattern is due to autosomal recessive allele.

No. 3 pattern can occur in both autosomal dominant (heterozygous) and recessive (homozygous) cases.

No. 4 pattern can occur in both autosomal dominant (homozygous) and recessive (homozygous) cases.

No. 5 pattern can occur in both autosomal dominant (heterozygous) and recessive (homozygous) cases.

Full explanation

Viruses' genomes may consist of double-stranded DNA, single-stranded DNA, double-stranded RNA, or single-stranded RNA, depending on the type of virus. A virus is called a DNA virus or an RNA virus based on the kind of nucleic acid that makes up its genome.

Thus, the correct option is option A) 1,2 and 3

Full explanation

Option A Explanation:

Option A shows the image of a neutrophil. Myeloid precursor cells undergo mitotic divisions and differentiate into myeloblasts, which are committed to becoming neutrophils. Thus, this option is correct.

Option B Explanation:

Option B shows the image of bacteria. Bacteria divide through the process called binary fission, not mitosis. Thus, this option is false. Binary fission is a simple and rapid method of asexual reproduction used primarily by prokaryotic organisms, such as bacteria. In binary fission, a single parent cell replicates its DNA and then divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. The process involves the following basic steps: the DNA is copied, the cell grows larger, and the plasma membrane pinches inward, eventually splitting the cytoplasm. Unlike mitosis in eukaryotes, binary fission does not involve spindle fibers or complex mitotic stages. It is an efficient way for bacteria to reproduce and rapidly increase their population.

Option C Explanation:

Option C shows the image of chloroplast. Chloroplasts arose from a cyanobacterial endosymbiont and multiply by binary division, reminiscent of their free-living ancestor. Thus, chloroplast is not formed by mitosis. This option is false.

Option D Explanation:

Option D shows the image of a virus. Viruses lack metabolic enzymes and equipment for making proteins, such as ribosomes. They are obligate intracellular parasites; in other words, they can replicate only within a host cell by using the host sources. Thus, viruses are formed through replicative cycles in the host cell, not through mitosis. This option is false.

Option E Explanation:

Option E shows the image of mitochondria. Mitochondria divide into two separate mitochondrial organelles through the process called mitochondrial fission, not mitosis. Thus, mitochondria is not formed by mitosis and this option is false.

Full explanation

From the given graph, it can be concluded that there is a sudden rise in the blood cell count in a specific time period. Blood cells can be RBCs or WBCs. It can be due to several reasons. 3 explanations are given.

1. A reduction in the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere This is a correct explanation because the body adjust the reduction in environmental oxygen concentration (Hypoxia) by stimulating RBC production, thereby increasing the blood cell count in the blood.

2. A response to a bacterial infection This is another correct explanation because infections, especially bacterial ones, trigger an immune response, leading to an increase in white blood cell (WBC) count (leukocytosis) to fight the infection.

3. Increased differentiation of bone marrow stem cells This is also a correct explanation because if bone marrow stem cells are stimulated, the production of blood cells increases, leading to a rise in blood count.

Thus, the correct option is option D) 1, 2 and 3

Full explanation

To form a triglyceride, three fatty acids with the molecular formula C₈H₁₆O₂ undergo three-step esterification reaction with glycerol (C₃H₈O₃). In this process, each fatty acid forms an ester bond with one of the three hydroxyl groups on the glycerol molecule. For every ester bond formed, one molecule of water (H₂O) is released, resulting in the removal of three water molecules overall. This leads to the formation of a triglyceride composed of the glycerol backbone linked to three fatty acid chains via ester linkages.

The correct formula would be D) C₂₇H₅₀O₆

Full explanation

The question mentions a cell containing four pairs of homologous chromosomes divides by meiosis.

Meiosis is composed of 2 stages of cell division.

- Meiosis 1 is reductional division (homologous chromosomes separation)

- Meiosis 2 is equational division (sister chromatids separation)

For a cell with 4 homologous chromosomes, there will be 8 chromosomes. 2 cells; each with 4 chromosomes will result from Meiosis 1. After meiosis 2, 4 cells with 4 chromosomes each will result.

Thus, the correct option is option C) row 3.

Full explanation

The sequence of bases in part of a DNA strand is:

TATGATCTTAGGCAACAT

A strand of mRNA is transcribed using this sequence of bases.

According to complementary base pairing, the sequence of mRNA is:

AUACUAGAAUCCGUUGUA (6A, 6U, 3G, 3C)

Total base number is 6+6+3+3 = 18

Adenine and Uracil each will occupy one-third of circle and Guanine and Cytosine will occupy one-sixth of the circle.

Thus, the correct option is option C.

Full explanation

Label P represents Golgi apparatus, which can be identified by their stacks of associated, flattened sacs, or cisternae. The main function of the Golgi apparatus is to receive, modify and send proteins to other destinations. Golgi has different numbers of cistenae, but in this picture may appear connected under a microscope, but biochemically and structurally, each cisterna is an individual unit.

Label Q represents centrosome, which is composed of 2 centrioles. It helps organize microtubule assembly in animal cells.

Label R represents rough endoplasmic reticulum, which can be identified by network of membranous tubules and sacs called cisternae studded by ribosomes. Their main function is the production of secretory proteins.

Label S represents the mitochondrion, identifiable by its double-membrane structure. Its primary function is to carry out aerobic respiration and produce ATP, the cell's main energy source.

Label T represents the nucleolus, which is the prominent structure inside the nucleus. It synthesizes rRNA.

Among 5 rows mentioned in the table, the only correct row is row 5.

Full explanation

Bile is digestive fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. Bile aids digestion by emulsifying fats in the small intestine, breaking large fat droplets into smaller ones to increase the surface area for lipase enzymes to act, making fat digestion more efficient.

Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down polysaccharides (like starch and glycogen) into smaller sugars. It is produced by the pancrease and released into the duodenum. Specifically, amylase hydrolyzes the α-1,4-glycosidic bonds between glucose units in long polysaccharide chains. It breaks them down into smaller chains, mainly maltose (a disaccharide made of two glucose units), but it cannot digest maltose. Maltose is broken into the glucose by maltase.

The similar feature between bile and pancreatic amylase is the site of action. Both of them act in the small intestine.

Thus, the correct role that shows the relationship between the features of bile and amylase is row 5.

Full explanation

Any substance that elicits a B or T cell response is called an antigen. In adaptive immunity, recognition occurs when a B cell or T cell binds to an antigen, such as a bacterial or viral protein, via a protein called an antigen receptor. For immune cells to have access to the particular antigen ; in this case, the donor's antigen; a transportation system (blood supply) is required. Among the given 4 organs, the cornea is the only avascular organ. Thus, immune cells and antibodies have limited access to it and transplant can be carried out without the need for a match between donor and recipient.

Thus, the correct option is option C) cornea.

Full explanation

SRY gene (Sex-determining Region Y) is located on Y chromosome. It is required for testis development. Without SRY gene, gonads develop into ovaries, even in XY embryos.

Analysis of the given statements about SRY gene

1. Insertion of the SRY gene into an X chromosome of a female zygote could give it male characteristics This statement is correct. Since the SRY gene is responsible for initiating the male developmental pathway, If inserted into an X chromosome in a zygote, it could lead to male characteristics despite the absence of a Y chromosome.

2. A sperm cell arising from incorrect division, which has a functional SRY gene, could give rise to a female with a sex chromosome trisomy following fertilisation with a normal ova This statement is false. If the sperm carries an SRY-containing chromosome, the individual is unlikely to be phenotypically female because the presence of the SRY gene typically leads to male development.

3. During meiosis, crossing over could result in the formation of 'X' sperm with the SRY gene, which could cause male characteristics after fertilisation This statement is correct. If the SRY gene is transferred onto the X chromosome and an X-bearing sperm fertilizes an egg, the resulting XX individual could develop male characteristics due to the presence of SRY.

Thus, the correct option is option B) 1 and 3 only.

Full explanation

Note 1 is false because The retina is primarily composed of sensory neurons, specifically photoreceptors (rods and cones), and interneurons that process visual information before sending it to the brain.

Note 2 is false because fovea is densely packed with cone photoreceptors.

Note 3 is false because pupil constricts to reduce the light entering the eye in the light, not in the dark.

Note 4 is true because the cornea is avascular (lacks blood vessels), so it relies on the aqueous humor for nutrients, including glucose and oxygen.

Note 5 is false because cornea cannot be adjusted. Only lens can adjust their curvature for fine focus.

Thus, the correct option is option D) note 4.

Full explanation

Natural selection can alter the frequency distribution of heritable traits in three ways, depending on which phenotypes in a population are favored: through directional selection, disruptive selection, and stabilizing selection.

Directional selection occurs when conditions favor individuals exhibiting one extreme of a phenotypic range.

Disruptive selection occurs when conditions favor individuals at both extremes of a phenotypic range over individuals with intermediate phenotypes.

Stabilizing selection acts against both extreme phenotypes and favors intermediate variants

Among the given information on the table, only the row 5 represents the correct pattern of directional selection because a low frequency phenotype is selected and it could be the case that the frequency of a recessive allele increases and a predator could be the cause.

Full explanation

For an adult human at rest with a heart rate of about 72 beats per minute, one complete cardiac cycle takes about 0.8 second. 3 general phases are involved.

1. Atrial and ventricular diastole : AV valves open and semilunar valves close.

2. Atrial systole and ventricular diastole : AV valves open and semilunar valves close.

3. Ventricular systole and atrial diastole : AV valves close and semilunar valves open.

Option A Explanation:

A) When the left ventricle relaxes, the aortic valve closes.

During ventricular diastole, semilunar valves (aortic valve) close.

Thus, this option is correct.

Option B Explanation:

B) When the right atrium contracts, the left ventricle contracts.

During atrial systole phase, ventricles relax.

Thus, this option is false.

Option C Explanation:

C) When the right ventricle contracts, the right atrio-ventricular valve opens.

During ventricular systole, AV valves close and semilunar valves open.

Thus, this option is false.

Option D Explanation:

D) When the right atrio-ventricular valve closes, the left atrio-ventricular valve opens.

AV valves close and open simultaneously.

Thus, this option is false.

Option E Explanation:

E) When the left atrium contracts, the aortic valve opens.

During atrial systole phase, AV valves open and semilunar valves (aortic valve) close.

Thus, this option is false

Full explanation

Biological catalysts are enzymes that control the rate of reaction of metabolic processes occurring in the living cells. Metabolic process usually occur in all of the 3 mentioned cellular structures.

All three structures listed --- cytoplasm, nucleus, and mitochondria --- contain enzymes and thus biological catalysts. In the cytoplasm, enzymes are involved in pathways like glycolysis, where glucose is broken down to produce energy. In the nucleus, enzymes are essential for DNA replication and transcription processes, such as DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase. In the mitochondria, enzymes drive the reactions of the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) and the electron transport chain, both critical for aerobic respiration and ATP synthesis. Therefore, all three structures (1, 2, and 3) contain biological catalysts.

Full explanation

The general formula of a molecule is given : HₘXOₙ

First, assign Oxidation Numbers to Known Elements.

- Hydrogen (H): Usually +1.

- Oxygen (O): Usually 2.

- X: Unknown (we need to determine it).

The sum of oxidation states in a neutral molecule must be 0.

Oxidation state of H + Oxidation state of X + Oxidation state of O = 0

(m × (+1)) + (Oxidation state of X) + (n × (−2)) = 0

m + (Oxidation state of X) − 2n = 0

Oxidation state of X = 2n−m

Thus, the correct option is option D) 2n - m

Full explanation

Group VII (Group 17 in modern IUPAC notation) consists of the halogens: fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), iodine (I), and astatine (At).

As we move down the group;

- Melting point increases because the size of the molecules increases and London dispersion force become stronger with increasing atomic size.

- Electronegativity decreases because as atomic size increases, reducing the effective nuclear affinity on bonding electrons. Fluorine is the most electronegative element.

- First ionizing energy decreases because as the atomic radius increases, the outermost electrons are further from the nucleus and less energy is needed to remove the outermost electron.

Thus, only properties 2 and 3 decrease down the group. The correct option is option A) 2 and 3 only

Full explanation

Given :

- Mass of KNO₃ = 3.2 g

- Volume of solution = 100 mL = 0.100 L

Initial concentration =massvolume=3.2 g0.1 L= 32 gL⁻¹

After dilution in the volumetric flask,

25 mL of the initial solution is taken and diluted to 250 mL.

Dilution formula : C₁V₁ = C₂V₂

where : C₁ = 32 gL^{- 1}, V₁ = 25 ml, V₂ = 250 ml, C₂ = ?

( 32 gL^{- 1} )(25ml) = C₂ (250ml)

C₂ =32 × 25250=800250= 3.2 gL⁻¹

Thus, the correct option is option B) 3.20 gL⁻¹

Full explanation

Hydrogen bonding occurs when hydrogen is directly bonded to highly electronegative atoms (N, O, or F).

Option A Explanation:

A) Propanal, CH₃CH₃CHO

- No strong hydrogen bonding because C=O (carbonyl) does not have an H directly attached to O.

- Only dipole-dipole and Van der Waals forces.

Option B Explanation:

B) Fluoromethane, CH₃F

- No strong hydrogen bonding because H is not directly bonded to F.

- Only dipole-dipole interactions due to polar C-F bonds.

Option C Explanation:

C) Ethanoic acid, CH₃СООН

Forms strong hydrogen bonds due to --OH in the carboxyl group.

Option D Explanation:

D) Trimethylamine, (CH₃)₃N

- No hydrogen bonding because there is no H attached to N.

- Only weak dipole-dipole interactions.

Option E Explanation:

E) Hydrogen sulfide, H₃S

- No significant hydrogen bonding because H is not attached to N, F or O.

- Only weak dipole-dipole and Van der Waals forces.

Full explanation

In the given Vitamin B5 structure, hydroxy group (-OH) can be identified on one end of the structure, contributing to its solubility in water. Amide group (-CONH-) can be identified in the central part of the structure. Carboxyl group (-COOH) can be identified on another end of the structure, making it acidic.

Thus, the correct option is C) 1, 3 and 5 only

Full explanation

Structural isomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula with different connectivity of atoms or different functional groups.

Hexane has the molecular formula C₆H₁₄

Among the given hydrocarbons, only the hydrocarbon number 2 has the same molecular formula as hexane. It also features the connectivity difference with the linear hexane. Thus, this is the correct structural isomer of hexane.

The correct option is option A) 2 only

Checking the other two against hexane's own formula (C₆H₁₄) makes this concrete. Structure 1 is drawn as a closed six-carbon ring rather than an open chain — that's cyclohexane, C₆H₁₂, a different molecular formula from hexane altogether, so it can't be an isomer of it no matter how the atoms are arranged. Structure 3 is a straight chain of only five carbons — that's pentane, C₅H₁₂, one carbon short of hexane's formula, so it's simply a smaller molecule, not an isomer. Only structure 2, a five-carbon backbone with one methyl branch (2-methylpentane), keeps hexane's exact formula, C₆H₁₄, while rearranging how the atoms connect — which is precisely what makes it a genuine structural isomer.

Full explanation

In AlCl₃ , Aluminium has 3 valence electrons and forms 3 single bonds with chlorine atoms. No lone pairs on Al express sp² hybridization, contributing to Trigonal planar shape.

In dimeric Al₂Cl₆, two AlCl₃ units link. Each Al forms three normal Al-Cl bonds + one additional Al-Cl coordinate bond with a bridging Cl. This gives each Al four bonding regions and express sp³ hybridization, contributing to Tetrahedral shape.

Thus, the correct option is option C) row 4

Full explanation

Given atom has a mass number of 18 and contains 10 neutrons.

atomic number (Z) = Mass number (A) - Number of neutrons = 18 - 10 = 8

Electron configuration for neutral atom is 1s²2s²2p⁴

Electron configuration for ion with a charge of -2 would be 1s²2s²2p⁶ (add 2 electrons to the outermost shell)

Thus, the correct option is option E) 1s²2s²2p⁶

Full explanation

Given : mass of Fe = 1.68 g, mass of O = 0.64g

First, determine the Moles of Iron and Oxygen

Mole of Fe = 1.68g/56 = 0.03 mol

Mole of O = 0.64/16 = 0.04 mol

Then, find the simplest whole number ratio of the moles of Fe and O by dividing by the smaller number of mole.

mole of Fe : mole of O

(0.03)/(0.03) :(0.04)/(0.03)

1:1.33

To get a whole number ratio, multiply both side with 3.

1 x 3 : 1.33 x 3

3 : 4

Thus, the empirical formula is Fe₃O₄.

The correct option is option A) Fe₃O₄

Full explanation

The first electron affinity of an element is the energy change when one mole of electrons is added to one mole of gaseous atoms to form one mole of gaseous ions:

X(g) + e⁻ → X⁻(g)

Option A Explanation:

A) CI⁻(g) + e⁻ → CI (g)

Incorrect. This is the reverse of electron affinity, representing electron loss.

Option B Explanation:

B) 2CI⁻(g) - 2e⁻ → Cl₂ (g)

Incorrect. This represents the formation of Cl₂ from Cl⁻ ions, not a single-atom process.

Option C Explanation:

C) CI (g) + e⁻ → CI⁻(g)

Correct. This follows the form: X(g) + e⁻ → X⁻(g)

Option D Explanation:

D) Cl₂ (g) + 2e⁻ → Cl₂ (g)

Incorrect. This doesn't show the formation of Cl⁻ from Cl atoms

Option E Explanation:

E) CI (g) → CI⁻(g) + e⁻

Incorrect. This represents electron loss, not gain.

Full explanation

2 solutions of nitric acid and sulfuric acids are given. Both are strong acids.

Analysis of the given statements

1. The hydrogen ion concentration in Y is four times greater than the hydrogen ion concentration in X

X : HNO₃ fully dissociates as HNO₃ → H⁺ + NO₃⁻ [H⁺] of given Nitric acid solution = 0.050 mol L⁻¹ (same as the acid concentration)

Y : H₂SO₄ fully dissociates as H₂SO₄ → 2H⁺ + SO₄⁻ [H⁺] of given Sulfuric acid solution = 2 x 0.050 mol L⁻¹ = 0.1 mol L⁻¹ Thus, the hydrogen ion concentration in Y is two times greater than the hydrogen ion concentration in X, not four time. This statement is incorrect.

2. Only the acid in Y will be completely dissociated into ions

Since both of the given solutions are strong acids, both will completely dissociate into ions. Thus, this statement is incorrect.

3. Y has a pH value of less than 2 at 25°C

Solution Y has hydrogen concentration of 0.1 mol L⁻¹ pH = -log [H⁺] = -log [10⁻¹] = 1 Since pH = 1 is less than 2, this statement is correct.

Thus, the correct option is option A) 3 only.

Full explanation

Analysis of the given statements

1. The addition of 1 g of salt to 100 g water will increase the freezing point This statement is false. Adding salt (a solute) to water causes freezing point depression, meaning the freezing point decreases rather than increases.

2. A change in temperature from 150°C to 120°C will increase the average kinetic energy of water molecules This statement is false. Kinetic energy is directly proportional to temperature. Lowering the temperature from 150°C to 120°C will decrease, not increase, the average kinetic energy of water molecules.

3. A change in the surrounding air pressure from 100kPa to 120kPa will increase the boiling point of water This statement is correct. Boiling occurs when the vapor pressure of water equals the external pressure. Increasing air pressure from 100 kPa to 120 kPa means more energy is required for water molecules to escape, leading to a higher boiling point.

Thus, the correct option is option D) 3 only.

Full explanation

Multiply through by 6 (the LCM of 2 and 3) to clear fractions: 6 × [½(2x+3) − ⅔(x+1)] < 6 × 2x ⇒ 3(2x + 3) − 4(x + 1) < 12x.

Expand: 6x + 9 − 4x − 4 < 12x ⇒ 2x + 5 < 12x ⇒ 5 < 10x ⇒ x > 1/2.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Full explanation

For circular motion, speed v = ωr = 10 rad/s × 2.5 m = 25 m/s.

Centripetal acceleration a = ω²r = 10² × 2.5 = 100 × 2.5 = 250 m/s².

This matches row 1 (speed 25 m/s, acceleration 250 m/s²).

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Full explanation

Momentum = mass × velocity, so momentum × velocity = mass × velocity². This is dimensionally the same as kinetic energy (½mv²), whose unit is the joule (J).

Checking the other options: (mass)² × velocity has units of kg²·m/s, not energy. Voltage/(current × time) has units of V/(A·s) = W/A² roughly, not joules. (charge)² × resistance has units of C²·Ω, not joules directly. Specific heat capacity/(mass × temperature change) has units of 1/(kg²·K²) roughly, not joules.

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

Full explanation

Thermal energy required: Q = mcΔT = 1.20 kg × 500 J/(kg°C) × (90.0 − 40.0)°C = 1.20 × 500 × 50 = 30 000 J.

Time = 5.00 minutes = 300 s. Power = energy / time = 30 000 J / 300 s = 100 W.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

Full explanation

PR = PS + SR = 1 + 2.5 = 3.5 cm. Since ST ∥ PQ, triangles RST and RPQ are similar, so RS/RP = RT/RQ: 2.5/3.5 = 5/RQ, giving RQ = 5 × 3.5/2.5 = 7 cm.

QT = RQ − RT = 7 − 5 = 2 cm.

PQ (hypotenuse of the right triangle PRQ) = √(RP² + RQ²) = √(3.5² + 7²) = √(12.25 + 49) = √61.25 = (7√5)/2 cm.

Perimeter of trapezium PQTS = PS + ST + TQ + QP. Using ST/PQ = RS/RP = 2.5/3.5 = 5/7: ST = (5/7) × (7√5)/2 = (5√5)/2 cm.

Perimeter = 1 + (5√5)/2 + 2 + (7√5)/2 = 3 + (12√5)/2 = 3 + 6√5 = 3(1 + 2√5) cm.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Full explanation

In triangle PQR (right angle at Q), tan(PRQ) = PQ/QR = 1/7, so let PQ = x, QR = 7x. Area = ½ × PQ × QR = ½ × x × 7x = 3.5x² = 14, so x² = 4, x = 2. Thus PQ = 2 cm, QR = 14 cm.

PR (hypotenuse of PQR) = √(PQ² + QR²) = √(4 + 196) = √200 = 10√2 cm.

In triangle PRS, the right angle is at R (angle PRS = 90°), with legs PR = 10√2 cm and RS = 5 cm. The hypotenuse PS = √(PR² + RS²) = √(200 + 25) = √225 = 15 cm.

cos(RPS) = adjacent/hypotenuse = PR/PS = 10√2/15 = 2√2/3.

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

Full explanation

By Pascal's Principle, pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally throughout the fluid. Pressure is equal at the same height in a connected fluid, so P_X = P_Y. This makes statement 1 false and statement 2 true.

Since pressure = force/area, and P_X = P_Y: F₁/A₁ = F₂/A₂, where A₂ (large piston) > A₁ (small piston). For the equality to hold with a larger area, F₂ must be greater than F₁. This makes statement 3 true and statement 4 false.

So, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Full explanation

Factorise the denominator: x² + x − 2 = x² − x + 2x − 2 = x(x − 1) + 2(x − 1) = (x + 2)(x − 1).

So the expression becomes (x + 2)² / [(x + 2)(x − 1)] = (x + 2)/(x − 1), cancelling one factor of (x + 2).

Hence, the correct answer is (E).