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IMAT 2020 · Answers & Worked Solution

IMAT 2020 Answers & Worked Solution

All 60 answers, solved and explained — General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics. Verified line by line by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team.

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General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning

Current affairs, history, culture, logical and critical-thinking problems · 22 questions
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In some countries, prisoners may purchase books with the money they earn by working. Hence, receiving gifts of books may discourage prisoners from undertaking paid work while in prison. This work is important in building self-esteem and encouraging a work ethic among prisoners. In any case, prisoners have access to books through the prison library. Therefore prisoners should not be allowed to receive parcels containing books from friends or relatives while they are serving their sentence. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the above argument?

  • AMany parcels of books sent by relatives or friends have been found to contain illegal drugs.
  • BPrisoners often read detective stories which may encourage them to glamorise crime.
  • CThe range of books available in prison libraries is limited.
  • DMany prisoners have difficulty finding work when they are released because of their low level of literacy.
  • EPrisoners have to purchase a range of items from their wages, including a television licence.
Correct answer: A Many parcels of books sent by relatives or friends have been found to contain illegal drugs.

Full explanation

The argument states that allowing prisoners to receive books as gifts may discourage them from working, which is important for their self-esteem and work ethic. It concludes that prisoners should only access books through the prison library instead of receiving them from relatives or friends.

To strengthen this argument, we need a statement that further justifies why preventing book parcels is beneficial—either by supporting the idea that prisoners should work or that library access is sufficient.

Option A Explanation:

A) Many parcels of books sent by relatives or friends have been found to contain illegal drugs.

Correct. This strengthens the argument by adding a security concern—if book parcels can be used to smuggle drugs, banning them becomes more reasonable.

Option B Explanation:

B) Prisoners often read detective stories which may encourage them to glamorise crime.

Irrelevant. The argument is about discouraging work, not book content.

Option C Explanation:

C) The range of books available in prison libraries is limited.

Weakens the argument. If the library selection is limited, banning book parcels reduces prisoners’ access to books, making the policy less justified.

Option D Explanation:

D) Many prisoners have difficulty finding work when they are released because of their low level of literacy.

Irrelevant. The argument is about prison work ethic, not literacy levels after release.

Option E Explanation:

E) Prisoners have to purchase a range of items from their wages, including a television licence.

Irrelevant. This does not support the idea that banning book parcels encourages work.

Summary to learn

A “strengthen” question asks for a new fact that makes an argument’s conclusion more likely to be true, typically by reinforcing the actual chain of reasoning that connects its premises to its conclusion — often by removing an objection to the proposed action. A fact that is merely on-topic but doesn’t engage that specific logical connection (for example, a detail about the surrounding situation that doesn’t bear on why the conclusion should follow) does not strengthen the argument, no matter how relevant it feels at first glance.

Thousands of books and blogs — and quite a bit of legitimate science — sing the praises of positivity. Optimistic, happy people tend to be healthier, more physically active and more successful. They may even live longer. But as shown by research, positivity, when deployed at the wrong time or in the wrong amount, can have negative effects. For example, when it comes to waiting for the results of an exam or a job interview, ‘being prepared for the worst’ is shown to be a better strategy for protecting ourselves than categorical optimism. When it comes to health, negative thinking spurs people into seeking information and engaging in healthy behaviour. Finally, relentlessly positive people may seem dismissive or insensitive to friends who are having difficulties, seeming to make light of their problems. Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

  • APositive thinking is not always helpful.
  • BNegative thinking about health can be beneficial.
  • CPeople who think positively live longer.
  • DBeing overly positive can damage our relationships with friends.
  • EResearch into positivity has so far ignored its potential downsides.
Correct answer: A Positive thinking is not always helpful.

Full explanation

The argument opens by noting that optimistic, happy people tend to be healthier, more physically active and more successful. This is then complicated by research showing that positivity, when used at the wrong time or in the wrong amount, can have negative effects, and several examples illustrate this. So, it implies that positivity mindset might not always give positive results. We have to choose the conclusion that resembles this the most.

Option A Explanation:

A) Positive thinking is not always helpful.

This directly summarizes the argument: positivity has both benefits and downsides.

Option B Explanation:

B) Negative thinking about health can be beneficial.

Too specific. This is one example, but not the main conclusion.

Option C Explanation:

C) People who think positively live longer.

This is mentioned as a potential benefit but is not the argument’s main point.

Option D Explanation:

D) Being overly positive can damage our relationships with friends.

This is one consequence but not the overall conclusion.

Option E Explanation:

E) Research into positivity has so far ignored its potential downsides.

The passage cites research showing the negative effects, so this is inaccurate.

Summary to learn

The main conclusion of a passage is the single claim that every other sentence exists to support — not necessarily the passage’s last sentence, and not automatically its most dramatic-sounding claim. When a passage lists a claim’s benefits and then pivots to describe its downsides or exceptions, the conclusion is usually the balanced claim that reflects that pivot (“X isn’t always true”), rather than either one-sided extreme taken on its own.

A piece of paper is laid on a table in landscape orientation (i.e. the longer side running left to right and the shorter side running top to bottom). This piece of paper is then folded in half four times, alternately by moving the left hand side across over the right hand side and folding, and by moving the top half down over the bottom half and then folding. After each fold a dot is made with a pen in the centre of the face showing on the table. After the four folds and four dots, the paper is unfolded in the reverse sequence and is then turned over so that the four dots are showing. What is the pattern of the dots on the paper? (Dotted lines represent the fold marks)

IMAT 2020 question 3 figure
  • A
    IMAT 2020 question 3 dot pattern option A
  • B
    IMAT 2020 question 3 dot pattern option B (correct)
  • C
    IMAT 2020 question 3 dot pattern option C
  • D
    IMAT 2020 question 3 dot pattern option D
  • E
    IMAT 2020 question 3 dot pattern option E
Correct answer: B Option B

Full explanation

This is a simple visualization question. We’ll look only at the first fold.

1st fold: Left side over right → dot on center of that left face.

the paper is unfolded in the reverse sequence and is then turned over, the dot appears on the right side, centered on the right half of the paper.

Among the options, only option B satisfies this condition.

Therefore, the correct answer is option B.

IMAT 2020 question 3 figure
Summary to learn

Paper-folding-and-dot questions are best solved by tracking a single reference point (or just the first fold) through the sequence of folds, then reversing that same sequence to unfold it, rather than trying to visualise the whole sheet moving at once. Because each fold reflects the paper across a line, a dot’s final position after unfolding and turning over is a mirror image of where it was marked, repeated once across every fold line it crosses.

As part of a maths project, a class of 30 children conduct a survey amongst themselves of how many brothers and sisters they have. They each write their name in the appropriate space on the chart below. No one in the class has a brother or sister who is also in the class.

Brothers
Sisters0123
0Sara, Jordan, Ben, EllieKylie, Gita, Tamsin, Sam, Adam, Bethany, CraigLeroy, GemmaCallum
1Kate, Jessica, Robin, Vikram, Sally, Scott, Chloe, OliverRajiv, Emily, FatimaPaul—
2ArunaCandice, Marvin——
3—Phoebe——

How many of the 30 families involved in the survey have a total of 3 or more children?

  • A6
  • B7
  • C11
  • D10
  • E8
Correct answer: C 11

Full explanation

To answer this question, we have to count the children who have 2 or more siblings (since a family of 3 or more children means the surveyed child has at least 2 siblings).

Rajiv, Emily and Fatima each have 1 brother and 1 sister.

Candice and Marvin have 1 brother and 2 sisters.

Aruna has 2 sisters.

Phoebe has 1 brother and 3 sisters.

Leroy and Gemma have 2 brothers.

Paul has 2 brothers and 1 sister.

Callum has 3 brothers.

So, in total, 11 families have a total of 3 or more children.

Summary to learn

When a survey’s results are organised in a two-way grid (one variable running down the rows, a second running across the columns), a question about a combined condition — such as “a total of 3 or more children” — requires converting each cell’s row-and-column position into that combined value first (here, sisters + brothers + the surveyed child), and then counting every cell whose combined value clears the threshold, rather than reading off just one row or column.

36% of the contents of a tin of sweets have been eaten. Today, 25% of the remaining sweets will be eaten. The same number of sweets will be eaten on each of the following 2 days. What % of its original contents will it then contain?

  • A24
  • B25
  • C16
  • D9
  • E15
Correct answer: C 16

Full explanation

Let’s say that a tin of sweets has 100 g.

36% is eaten, which means 36 g is eaten. So, 64g of sweets remain.

Then, 25% of the remaining sweets is eaten.

25% of 64g would be 16g.

So, 64g – 16g = 48g of sweets remain.

The same number of sweets will be eaten on each of the following two days.

Remaining sweets = 48g – 16g – 16g = 16g which is the same as 16% because we use 100g as original content of the tin.

Thus, the correct answer is option C) 16

Summary to learn

When the same percentage reduction is repeated over several days, but each day’s amount removed stays fixed rather than being recalculated as a fresh percentage of whatever remains, the safest approach is to work with a concrete assumed total (such as 100 units), subtract the same fixed amount on each remaining day, and only convert back to a percentage of the original total at the very end.

LoCost sells three different types of washing powder: Zoom, Zap and Ownbrand. Zoom is a double concentrate brand needing only half the amount of powder used by the other two brands. Which one of the boxes of powder below represents best value for money?

IMAT 2020 question 6 figure
  • AZAP — 2 kg, £2.40
  • BZOOM (double concentrate) — 2 kg, £4.95
  • CZOOM (double concentrate) — 1 kg, £2.50
  • DOWN BRAND — 1 kg, £1.25
  • EZAP — 1 kg, £1.30
Correct answer: A ZAP — 2 kg, £2.40 (best value)

Full explanation

Zoom is double concentrate, meaning it needs only half the amount of powder that Zap or Own Brand needs for the same amount of washing. So, to compare fairly, work out the price per “effective” kilogram of washing power: for Zoom, effective kg = actual kg × 2 (since each kg goes twice as far); for Zap and Own Brand, effective kg = actual kg.

BoxBrandWeightPricePrice per effective kg
AZap2 kg£2.40£2.40 / 2 = £1.20
BZoom2 kg£4.95£4.95 / (2×2) = £1.24
CZoom1 kg£2.50£2.50 / (1×2) = £1.25
DOwn Brand1 kg£1.25£1.25 / 1 = £1.25
EZap1 kg£1.30£1.30 / 1 = £1.30

Box A has the lowest price per effective kilogram (£1.20), so it represents the best value for money.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Summary to learn

Comparing “value for money” across products that come in different weights, prices, and (for a concentrated product) different effective yields means comparing price per unit of what the product actually delivers, not price per raw kilogram on the label. A double-concentrate product’s effective quantity is double its stated weight, since a given amount of it goes twice as far as the standard product.

In 1938 the Dutch artist Piet Mondrian left Paris to escape the threat of German invasion and went to live in London, where he painted what are now regarded as his best works. Mondrian had the option of moving to a more rural area in England, but chose London because of his love of the diverse and vibrant culture of big cities. This explains why London has more artists living in it than any other city in England. Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above passage?

  • ALondon is a big city because all the artists who live there boost its size and population.
  • BThere is less inspiration for artists in rural areas.
  • CArtists can only create great works if they are happy and relaxed.
  • DOther big cities in England have the same attractive features as London.
  • EOther artists make the same choice as Mondrian for the same reasons.
Correct answer: E Other artists make the same choice as Mondrian for the same reasons.

Full explanation

The passage states that Mondrian chose London over a rural area because he loved its diverse and vibrant culture. It then concludes that London has more artists than any other city in England, implying that other artists must also prefer London for similar reasons.

For the argument to hold, it assumes that other artists also choose London for the same reasons as Mondrian—this connects the premise (Mondrian’s preference) to the conclusion (London has the most artists).

Option A Explanation:

A) London is a big city because all the artists who live there boost its size and population.

Incorrect. The passage does not say that artists make London big, just that it attracts many artists.

Option B Explanation:

B) There is less inspiration for artists in rural areas.

The passage suggests that Mondrian preferred city life, but it does not state that rural areas lack inspiration.

Option C Explanation:

C) Artists can only create great works if they are happy and relaxed.

This is too extreme; the passage does not claim this as a requirement.

Option D Explanation:

D) Other big cities in England have the same attractive features as London.

The passage does not compare London to other cities in England.

Option E Explanation:

E) Other artists make the same choice as Mondrian for the same reasons.

Correct answer. The passage assumes that London has more artists because, like Mondrian, they are drawn to its diverse and vibrant culture.

Summary to learn

An argument’s underlying assumption is an unstated premise the argument needs in order for its conclusion to follow — often the missing link between a specific example (one person’s personal choice) and a general claim drawn from it (a whole city’s overall pattern). The clearest way to find it is to ask: if this assumption were false, would the conclusion still follow from the evidence given? If not, that statement is the assumption being tested.

People who take their holidays in Las Vegas love to gamble. Gerry will be going to France for his holiday so he must not like gambling. Which one of the following most closely parallels the reasoning used in the above argument?

  • APeople who eat a lot of sweets have rotten teeth. You eat a lot of sweets, so your teeth must be rotten.
  • BPeople who live in the city hate traffic jams. You live in the country so you must like traffic jams.
  • CYou have to find the password to complete the game. You haven’t finished the game yet so you can’t have found the password.
  • DYou always walk when you are visiting your sister. You are not visiting your sister so that’s why you are taking the car.
  • EIn England cars are driven on the left side of the road. We are driving on the left, so we must be in England.
Correct answer: B People who live in the city hate traffic jams. You live in the country so you must like traffic jams.

Full explanation

Premise: People who take their holidays in Las Vegas love to gamble.

– (If X → Y) → If someone goes to Las Vegas, they must love gambling.

Premise: Gerry is going to France for his holiday.

– (Not X) → Gerry is not going to Las Vegas.

Conclusion: Therefore, Gerry must not like gambling.

– (Not X → Not Y) → Since Gerry is not going to Las Vegas, he must not love gambling.

Option A Explanation:

A) People who eat a lot of sweets have rotten teeth. You eat a lot of sweets, so your teeth must be rotten.

– (X → Y, X is true → Y is true)

– Not a match.

Option B Explanation:

B) People who live in the city hate traffic jams. You live in the country so you must like traffic jams.

– (If X → Y, then Not X → Not Y)

– Exact parallel reasoning!

Option C Explanation:

C) You have to find the password to complete the game. You haven’t finished the game yet so you can’t have found the password.

– (If X → Y, then Not Y → Not X) (Contrapositive, which is valid reasoning)

– Not a match.

Option D Explanation:

D) You always walk when you are visiting your sister. You are not visiting your sister so that’s why you are taking the car.

– (If X → Y, then Not Y → Not X)

– Not a match

Option E Explanation:

E) In England cars are driven on the left side of the road. We are driving on the left, so we must be in England.

– (If X → Y, then Y → X) (Affirming the consequent, another fallacy, but not the same one)

– Not a match.

Summary to learn

Parallel-reasoning questions test whether an answer choice follows the exact same logical structure as the original argument — the same type of conditional statement and the same type of (valid or invalid) inference from it — not merely a similar topic. Writing the argument’s structure out symbolically (for example, “if X then Y; not X, therefore not Y”) makes it possible to check each option against that same skeleton, rather than being pulled toward an option that just happens to share a subject area with the original.

Jeff is looking to buy a new car. He will only be using it for commuting to his workplace for 1 year and will have a total annual mileage of 20,000. He wants to buy the car which would make his total spend over the year, including the initial cost of the car, the lowest.

Type of carCost to fill or charge tank ($)Distance on full tank or charge (miles)Car cost ($)
Autogas3020010,000
Diesel5050012,000
Petrol5040010,000
Hydrogen502009,500
Electric520012,500

Using the table above, which type of car should he buy?

  • Adiesel
  • Bhydrogen
  • Cpetrol
  • Dautogas
  • Eelectric
Correct answer: C petrol

Full explanation

Jeff wants the lowest total cost for 20,000 miles over the year, so for each car work out how many times its tank needs filling over that mileage, multiply by the cost per fill, and add the car’s own price.

Autogas: a full tank covers 200 miles, so 20,000 / 200 = 100 fills, each costing 30. Fuel cost = 100 × 30 = 3,000. Total cost = 10,000 (car) + 3,000 = 13,000.

Diesel: a full tank covers 500 miles, so 20,000 / 500 = 40 fills, each costing 50. Fuel cost = 40 × 50 = 2,000. Total cost = 12,000 (car) + 2,000 = 14,000.

Petrol: a full tank covers 400 miles, so 20,000 / 400 = 50 fills, each costing 50. Fuel cost = 50 × 50 = 2,500. Total cost = 10,000 (car) + 2,500 = 12,500.

Hydrogen: a full tank covers 200 miles, so 20,000 / 200 = 100 fills, each costing 50. Fuel cost = 100 × 50 = 5,000. Total cost = 9,500 (car) + 5,000 = 14,500.

Electric: a full charge covers 200 miles, so 20,000 / 200 = 100 charges, each costing 5. Fuel cost = 100 × 5 = 500. Total cost = 12,500 (car) + 500 = 13,000.

Comparing all five totals (13,000 / 14,000 / 12,500 / 14,500 / 13,000), the petrol car is the cheapest over the year, even though it isn’t the cheapest car to buy up front — its low running cost per mile makes up the difference. Thus, the correct answer is (C).

Summary to learn

Comparing options that each combine a one-off fixed cost with an ongoing cost per unit of use — total cost = fixed cost + (cost per unit × number of units) — means the option with the lowest total isn’t necessarily the one with the lowest fixed cost or the lowest running cost individually; it’s whichever has the lowest COMBINED total for the actual amount of use being compared. A cheap-to-buy option with a high running cost can end up costlier overall than an expensive-to-buy option with a low running cost, once enough usage is factored in.

Although the idea of a driverless vehicle seems like the stuff of science fiction, we are moving very close to the reality of self-driving cars. But we are so engrossed in the technology that we are ignoring the legal implications — and legislating for new scenarios takes time. A whole new set of questions is raised by the development of these machines. One example is the question of who takes responsibility when an accident happens. Given that the vast majority of crashes are caused in part at least by human error, self-driving cars should have the capacity to save lives. But they will not be perfect. So if an accident happens, who is responsible? The owner of the car, or the manufacturer of the car? The car itself cannot be prosecuted or made to pay damages. Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage?

  • AThe design of driverless cars will continue to improve with time.
  • BAll the technology needed to create a self-driving car is already available.
  • CNew laws are needed to determine liability for accidents involving driverless cars.
  • DIt will be impossible to determine liability for accidents involving driverless cars.
  • EWe should not continue to develop self-driving cars.
Correct answer: C New laws are needed to determine liability for accidents involving driverless cars.

Full explanation

The paragraph discusses about the driverless vehicle development and complications. Conclusion is explicitly stated in the second sentence “But we are so engrossed in the technology that we are ignoring the legal implications — and legislating for new scenarios takes time.” This is followed by the examples that point out the need for new legislation.

Thus, the conclusion that is best suited to this paragraph is Option C) New laws are needed to determine liability for accidents involving driverless cars.

Summary to learn

A “what can be concluded” question differs from a “what is the main point” question: the correct answer often isn’t stated directly but follows from combining several stated facts, while still staying strictly within what the passage actually supports. Options that go further than the evidence given — predicting a specific future outcome, or recommending that something be banned altogether — are usually traps, even when they sound like a reasonable thing to think.

Which one of the following was the first human to complete an orbit of the Earth in 1961?

  • AValentina Tereshkova
  • BYuri Gagarin
  • CNeil Armstrong
  • DJohn Glenn
  • EBuzz Aldrin
Correct answer: B Yuri Gagarin

Full explanation

In 1961, the Soviet Union sent the first human into space, completing an orbit around Earth.

Option A Explanation:

A) Valentina Tereshkova

First woman in space (1963), but not the first to orbit.

Option B Explanation:

B) Yuri Gagarin

Correct answer. He flew aboard Vostok 1 on April 12, 1961, becoming the first person to orbit Earth.

Option C Explanation:

C) Neil Armstrong

First person on the Moon (1969), not the first in orbit.

Option D Explanation:

D) John Glenn

First American to orbit Earth (1962), but after Gagarin.

Option E Explanation:

E) Buzz Aldrin

Second person on the Moon, not the first to orbit Earth.

Summary to learn

On 12 April 1961, Soviet cosmonaut Yuri Gagarin became the first human to complete an orbit of the Earth, flying aboard Vostok 1. This is a distinct milestone from several other space “firsts” that are easy to mix up: the first woman in space (Valentina Tereshkova, 1963), the first American to orbit Earth (John Glenn, 1962, after Gagarin), and the first Moon landing (Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin, 1969) — keeping the exact achievement, nationality, and date attached to each name is the key to this style of question.

The name of the German mathematician Carl Friedrich Gauss is famously associated with

  • Athe normal distribution curve
  • Bthe sine function
  • Cthe law of supply and demand
  • DBayes’ theorem
  • Ethe uncertainty principle
Correct answer: A the normal distribution curve

Full explanation

Carl Friedrich Gauss (1777–1855) was a German mathematician known for his contributions to statistics, number theory, and physics.

Option A Explanation:

A) the normal distribution curve

Correct answer. Also called the Gaussian distribution, it is a key concept in statistics and probability.

Option B Explanation:

B) the sine function

While Gauss worked on trigonometry, the sine function predates him.

Option C Explanation:

C) the law of supply and demand

An economic principle, not related to Gauss.

Option D Explanation:

D) Bayes’ theorem

Developed by Thomas Bayes, not Gauss.

Option E Explanation:

E) the uncertainty principle

Formulated by Werner Heisenberg in quantum mechanics.

Summary to learn

Carl Friedrich Gauss, an 18th/19th-century German mathematician, is best known for the normal (Gaussian) distribution — the bell-shaped curve central to statistics and probability — alongside major contributions to number theory. The other named results in this kind of question usually belong to entirely different people: the sine function long predates Gauss, Bayes’ theorem comes from Thomas Bayes’ work in probability, and the uncertainty principle is Werner Heisenberg’s contribution to quantum mechanics.

Which one of the following is NOT a principle of the sharing economy?

  • AUnused value is wasted value.
  • BCompetition is dangerous.
  • CStranger danger can be overcome.
  • DAccess is preferable to ownership.
  • ETransparent and open data increases innovation.
Correct answer: B Competition is dangerous.

Full explanation

The sharing economy involves peer-to-peer access to goods/services rather than ownership (e.g., Airbnb, Uber).

Option A Explanation:

A) Unused value is wasted value.

Key principle—sharing prevents waste.

Option B Explanation:

B) Competition is dangerous.

The sharing economy still thrives on competition (e.g., Uber vs. Lyft).

Option C Explanation:

C) Stranger danger can be overcome.

Trust-building mechanisms (reviews, IDs) reduce risks.

Option D Explanation:

D) Access is preferable to ownership.

Central idea—why own when you can share?

Option E Explanation:

E) Transparent and open data increases innovation.

Open data fosters efficiency in sharing platforms.

Correct answer is option B) competition is dangerous.

Summary to learn

The sharing economy — platforms like Airbnb or Uber that connect people to underused goods and services rather than requiring ownership — rests on a specific set of principles: unused capacity is wasted value, access can substitute for ownership, and transparent, open data together with trust-building tools (reviews, verified IDs) can overcome “stranger danger.” Competition between providers is not against this model; if anything, rival platforms competing for the same customers (such as Uber versus Lyft) is a normal feature of it, which is why “competition is dangerous” doesn’t belong on this list of principles.

Which one of the following is the director of the film Amarcord ?

  • AStanley Kubrick
  • BFrancis Ford Coppola
  • CFrançois Truffaut
  • DAlfred Hitchcock
  • EFederico Fellini
Correct answer: E Federico Fellini

Full explanation

Amarcord (1973) is a famous Italian film known for its nostalgic and surreal style. It was directed by Federico Fellini.

Option A Explanation:

A) Stanley Kubrick

Known for 2001: A Space Odyssey, The Shining, not Amarcord.

Option B Explanation:

B) Francis Ford Coppola

Directed The Godfather series, not Amarcord.

Option C Explanation:

C) François Truffaut

A major French director, known for The 400 Blows.

Option D Explanation:

D) Alfred Hitchcock

Master of suspense, directed Psycho, Vertigo, not Amarcord.

Option E Explanation:

E) Federico Fellini

Fellini was an Italian director known for surreal, dreamlike films, including Amarcord.

Summary to learn

Amarcord (1973) is a nostalgic, semi-autobiographical film by the Italian director Federico Fellini, known across his career for a surreal, dreamlike visual style. Distinguishing directors by nationality and signature style rules out the other options: Stanley Kubrick (American, cerebral/technical films), Francis Ford Coppola (American, The Godfather series), François Truffaut (French New Wave), and Alfred Hitchcock (British/American, suspense).

Which of the following languages is not a member of the ‘Romance’ language family?

  • ABulgarian
  • BSpanish
  • CRomanian
  • DCatalan
  • EFrench
Correct answer: A Bulgarian

Full explanation

The Romance languages evolved from Latin and include Spanish, French, Italian, Portuguese, and Romanian.

Option A Explanation:

A) Bulgarian

Correct answer. Bulgarian is a Slavic language, not Romance.

Option B Explanation:

B) Spanish

Romance language, derived from Latin.

Option C Explanation:

C) Romanian

Though geographically in Eastern Europe, it is a Romance language.

Option D Explanation:

D) Catalan

Spoken in Spain, a Romance language.

Option E Explanation:

E) French

A major Romance language.

Summary to learn

The Romance languages are the group of languages that evolved directly from spoken (Vulgar) Latin, including Spanish, French, Italian, Portuguese, Romanian, and Catalan. Bulgarian belongs to a completely different language family, the Slavic languages, despite Bulgaria and Romania sitting close together geographically in Eastern Europe — geographic neighbours don’t always share a language family.

Which one of the following pairs of currency/country is NOT correct?

  • APeso — Argentina
  • BBaht — Thailand
  • CRand — South Africa
  • DEuro — Hungary
  • ERupee — India
Correct answer: D Euro — Hungary

Full explanation

Each country has an official currency

Option A Explanation:

A) Peso — Argentina

Correct. The Argentine peso (ARS) is the national currency.

Option B Explanation:

B) Baht — Thailand

Correct. The Thai baht (THB) is used in Thailand.

Option C Explanation:

C) Rand — South Africa

Correct. The South African rand (ZAR) is the official currency.

Option D Explanation:

D) Euro — Hungary

Incorrect. Hungary uses the Hungarian forint (HUF), not the Euro.

Option E Explanation:

E) Rupee — India

Correct. The Indian rupee (INR) is India’s currency.

Summary to learn

Only a subset of European Union member states have adopted the euro (the “eurozone”); a number of others, including Hungary, still use their own national currency — here, the Hungarian forint. Recognising that EU membership does not automatically mean euro use is the key fact behind currency/country pairing questions like this one.

The Fields Medal is a prestigious award in the field of

  • AEconomics
  • BMusic
  • CMathematics
  • DPsychology
  • EBiology
Correct answer: C Mathematics

Full explanation

The Fields Medal is mathematics’ equivalent of a Nobel Prize – in fact it is often called exactly that, “the Nobel Prize of Mathematics,” because no Nobel Prize exists for the subject. It is awarded only once every four years, and only to mathematicians under 40, which is meant to recognise major work done relatively early in a career.

The other four options are each real fields with real prizes of their own, just not this one: Economics has the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences, Music has awards like the Polar Music Prize or Grammys rather than anything called the Fields Medal, Psychology has no single flagship equivalent but nothing resembling this name, and Biology’s major honours run through the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine. None of them use the name “Fields.”

Thus, the correct option is C) Mathematics.

Summary to learn

The Fields Medal, awarded only once every four years and only to mathematicians under 40, functions as mathematics’ own equivalent of a Nobel Prize — a prize that, unlike most major sciences, doesn’t otherwise exist for the subject. Other fields have their own distinctly named top honours instead (for example, the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences for economics), which is exactly why none of them share the name “Fields.”

Which of these people did NOT win the Nobel Prize in Literature?

  • APablo Neruda
  • BBob Dylan
  • CThomas Mann
  • DCharles Dickens
  • EHarold Pinter
Correct answer: D Charles Dickens

Full explanation

The Nobel Prize in Literature is awarded to writers who have made significant contributions to literature.

Option A Explanation:

A) Pablo Neruda

Won in 1971. Chilean poet.

Option B Explanation:

B) Bob Dylan

Won in 2016. American singer-songwriter.

Option C Explanation:

C) Thomas Mann

Won in 1929. German novelist (The Magic Mountain).

Option D Explanation:

D) Charles Dickens

Did NOT win. Despite being a famous 19th-century writer (Oliver Twist, A Christmas Carol), he never received the Nobel Prize.

Option E Explanation:

E) Harold Pinter

Won in 2005. British playwright.

Summary to learn

The Nobel Prize in Literature has only existed since 1901 (established by Alfred Nobel’s 1895 will), so any writer who died before then — such as Charles Dickens, who died in 1870 — could never have been considered for it, no matter how famous their work. Checking a writer’s lifetime against when the prize actually began is a quick, reliable way to answer this style of question.

Which of the following books was NOT written by Primo Levi?

  • AThe Truce
  • BIf This Is a Man
  • CThe Drowned and the Saved
  • DBeyond Good and Evil
  • EIf Not Now, When?
Correct answer: D Beyond Good and Evil

Full explanation

Primo Levi was an Italian Jewish writer known for his works on the Holocaust and survival.

Option A Explanation:

A) The Truce

Written by Levi. Sequel to “If This Is a Man”.

Option B Explanation:

B) If This Is a Man

Written by Levi. His famous memoir about Auschwitz.

Option C Explanation:

C) The Drowned and the Saved

Written by Levi. Reflections on the Holocaust.

Option D Explanation:

D) Beyond Good and Evil

Not written by Levi. This is a philosophy book by Friedrich Nietzsche.

Option E Explanation:

E) If Not Now, When?

Written by Levi. A novel about Jewish resistance fighters.

Summary to learn

Primo Levi was an Italian-Jewish chemist and writer whose work centres on surviving Auschwitz and its long aftermath (If This Is a Man, The Truce, The Drowned and the Saved), as well as fiction about Jewish resistance fighters (If Not Now, When?). Beyond Good and Evil is a work of philosophy by the 19th-century German philosopher Friedrich Nietzsche, entirely unrelated to Levi’s own body of work.

Which one of the following pairs of archipelago/country is NOT correct?

  • AHawaii — United States of America
  • BAzores — Portugal
  • CCape Verde — Brazil
  • DCanary Islands — Spain
  • EGalapagos Islands — Ecuador
Correct answer: C Cape Verde — Brazil

Full explanation

An archipelago is a group of islands. Some belong to specific countries.

Option A Explanation:

A) Hawaii — United States of America

Correct. Hawaii is a U.S. state.

Option B Explanation:

B) Azores — Portugal

Correct. The Azores are an autonomous region of Portugal.

Option C Explanation:

C) Cape Verde — Brazil

Incorrect. Cape Verde is an independent country, not part of Brazil.

Option D Explanation:

D) Canary Islands — Spain

Correct. They are an autonomous community of Spain.

Option E Explanation:

E) Galapagos Islands — Ecuador

Correct. They belong to Ecuador.

Summary to learn

Cape Verde is an independent island nation off the West African coast, not a territory of Brazil — unlike Hawaii (a U.S. state), the Azores (an autonomous region of Portugal), the Canary Islands (an autonomous community of Spain), or the Galapagos Islands (a province of Ecuador), which really are part of the larger country they’re paired with in this kind of question.

Which of the following institutions of the Republic of Italy is democratically elected by direct universal suffrage?

  • APresident of the Council of Ministers
  • BHigh Council of the Judiciary
  • CGovernment
  • DSenate of the Republic
  • EPresident of the Republic
Correct answer: D Senate of the Republic

Full explanation

In Italy, direct universal suffrage means that all eligible citizens vote directly for the representatives. The Chamber of Deputies and the Senate of the Republic are the two houses of Parliament, both elected by the people.

Option A Explanation:

A) President of the Council of Ministers

(Prime Minister) — Not directly elected by the people; appointed by the President of the Republic.

Option B Explanation:

B) High Council of the Judiciary

Not elected by the public; it consists of judges and members appointed by different institutions.

Option C Explanation:

C) Government

The government is formed by the Prime Minister and ministers, but they are not directly elected by the people.

Option D Explanation:

D) Senate of the Republic

Correct answer. Senators are elected by the Italian people through direct universal suffrage.

Option E Explanation:

E) President of the Republic

Elected by Parliament and regional representatives, not directly by the people.

Summary to learn

In the Italian Republic, both houses of Parliament — the Chamber of Deputies and the Senate of the Republic — are elected directly by citizens through universal suffrage. By contrast, the Prime Minister (President of the Council of Ministers) is appointed rather than directly elected, the President of the Republic is chosen indirectly by Parliament and regional delegates, and judicial bodies such as the High Council of the Judiciary are formed through appointment, not a public vote.

Which one of the following international organisations maintains a list of the World Heritage Sites of outstanding cultural or natural importance?

  • AWTO
  • BWHO
  • COECD
  • DUNICEF
  • EUNESCO
Correct answer: E UNESCO

Full explanation

The World Heritage Sites are places of outstanding cultural or natural importance, recognized and protected under the UNESCO World Heritage Convention.

Option A Explanation:

A) WTO

World Trade Organization — Focuses on international trade regulations and agreements, not heritage protection.

Option B Explanation:

B) WHO

World Health Organization — Concerned with global public health, not cultural or natural sites.

Option C Explanation:

C) OECD

Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development — Works on economic policies and development, not heritage conservation.

Option D Explanation:

D) UNICEF

United Nations Children’s Fund — Focuses on children’s rights, education, and welfare, not World Heritage Sites.

Option E Explanation:

E) UNESCO

United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization — The correct answer. It maintains the World Heritage List and works to protect and preserve cultural and natural heritage worldwide.

Summary to learn

UNESCO (the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) maintains the World Heritage List, which recognises sites of outstanding cultural or natural value worldwide. The other international organisations that commonly appear as distractors here have entirely different mandates: the WTO covers international trade, the WHO covers public health, the OECD covers economic policy and development, and UNICEF focuses on children’s welfare.

Biology

Cell biology, genetics, molecular biology & human physiology · 18 questions
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Which of the following healthy cells contain circular DNA? 1 Escherichia coli 2 Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast) 3 human liver cell

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
  • E1 only
Correct answer: D 1, 2 and 3

Full explanation

Escherichia coli (1) contains circular DNA because it is a prokaryote (a bacterium), and prokaryotic cells have a single, circular chromosome instead of linear chromosomes.

Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast) (2) is a eukaryotic organism, and like other eukaryotes, its nuclear DNA is linear; however, it also contains mitochondria, which have circular DNA, so yeast cells do have some circular DNA.

Human liver cells (3) are also eukaryotic with linear nuclear DNA, but they too contain mitochondria, which have their own circular DNA. Therefore, all three — Escherichia coli, yeast, and human liver cells — contain circular DNA, though for different reasons: in E. coli it’s the main genome, and in yeast and human cells it’s mitochondrial DNA.

Summary to learn

Prokaryotic organisms such as bacteria (e.g. E. coli) carry a single circular chromosome as their entire genome. Eukaryotic organisms (such as yeast and humans) have linear DNA in their nucleus, but their mitochondria — and, in plants and algae, their chloroplasts — carry their own small circular genome, a legacy of these organelles having evolved from free-living bacteria (the endosymbiotic theory). So a eukaryotic cell can still contain circular DNA, just not inside its nucleus.

The structure of the amino acid asparagine is shown. In each image (V-Z) a part of the structure is enclosed by a line.

IMAT 2020 question 24 figure

Which line completely encloses the part of the molecule that is common to all naturally occurring amino acids and the R-group for this amino acid?

RowCommon to all amino acidsR-group for this amino acid
1XZ
2YX
3WV
4VW
5XY
  • Arow 1
  • Brow 5
  • Crow 3
  • Drow 4
  • Erow 2
Correct answer: B row 5

Full explanation

Asparagine, like every amino acid, is built around a central (alpha) carbon carrying an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), a hydrogen, and a side chain (R-group) that is unique to that amino acid. For asparagine, the R-group is -CH2-CONH2 – a chain ending in its own small amide group, distinct from the backbone’s amino and carboxyl groups.

In the structure as drawn (H2N-CO-CH2-CH(NH2)-COOH, read left to right), the right-hand end – the alpha carbon together with its -NH2 and the -COOH – is the part common to every amino acid, and that is exactly what loop X encloses. The left-hand end – the -CH2-CONH2 portion – is asparagine’s own R-group, and that is exactly what loop Y encloses. Loops V, W and Z each enclose the wrong combination of atoms (mixing parts of the backbone with parts of the R-group, or only partly enclosing one of them), which is why they don’t match either column correctly.

Checking this against the answer table: row 5 is the only row that pairs “common to all amino acids” with X and “R-group for this amino acid” with Y – exactly the split just described. Thus, the correct option is B) row 5.

Summary to learn

Every amino acid shares the same core backbone — an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a hydrogen atom, all attached to a central (alpha) carbon — and differs from every other amino acid only in its side chain, the R-group, attached to that same carbon. Identifying which atoms in a drawn structure belong to this universal backbone versus which belong to the R-group is really just a matter of locating the central carbon and separating out everything that isn’t the shared -NH2, -COOH, or H.

The occurrence of which of the following could allow you to distinguish between the processes of DNA replication and transcription? 1 The breaking of hydrogen bonds. 2 The formation of hydrogen bonds. 3 The formation of phosphodiester bonds.

  • A1 only
  • B3 only
  • Cnone of them
  • D2 only
  • E1 and 2 only
Correct answer: C none of them

Full explanation

DNA replication is the process of synthesizing DNA from DNA.

Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA from DNA.

Analysis of the given statements

1. The breaking of hydrogen bonds: Both DNA replication and transcription requires the breaking of hydrogen bonds to expose the sequence for the synthesis of new DNA strands or RNA strand.

2. The formation of hydrogen bonds: Complementary base pairing and formation of hydrogen bonds occur in both processes. In DNA replication, new DNA strands form hydrogen bonds with the template strand. In transcription, mRNA forms temporary hydrogen bonds with the DNA template strand before detaching.

3. The formation of phosphodiester bonds: Phosphodiester bonds form in both processes to synthesize a new strand of nucleic acids. Thus, this is also a shared feature, not a distinguishing one.

Thus, none of the given information can distinguish between DNA replication and transcription.

Summary to learn

DNA replication and transcription are both template-directed processes: both break existing hydrogen bonds to expose a DNA template, both form new hydrogen bonds as complementary bases pair up against that template, and both link the new nucleotides together with phosphodiester bonds. The two processes differ only in their product (a full double-stranded DNA copy versus a single-stranded RNA transcript) and the enzymes that carry them out — not in which broad categories of chemical bond get made or broken along the way.

Which one of the following will be caused by an appropriate stimulus of a rod cell in the retina of a healthy human eye?

  • Arhodopsin will form an opsin and retinol
  • Ban opsin and retinol will form rhodopsin
  • Crhodopsin will form an opsin and retinal
  • Drhodopsin will form opsonin and retinol
  • Ean opsin and retinal will form rhodopsin
Correct answer: C rhodopsin will form an opsin and retinal

Full explanation

Rod cells detect dim light using the pigment rhodopsin, which is built from two parts: a protein called opsin and a light-absorbing molecule called retinal (a derivative of vitamin A). When light hits a rod cell, it doesn’t create rhodopsin – it breaks it apart. The light causes retinal to change shape and separate from opsin, and that separation is what triggers the nerve impulse. So the stimulus event is rhodopsin splitting into opsin and retinal, not the other way around.

That already rules out options B and E, which both have the reaction running backwards – opsin and retinol/retinal combining to form rhodopsin. That’s the resting state being restored after the response, not the response to the stimulus itself.

Options A and D get the direction right but the chemistry wrong: the light-absorbing molecule is retinal, not retinol (retinol is the storage form of vitamin A found in the bloodstream and liver – close enough in spelling to catch you out, but it isn’t the molecule bound inside rhodopsin). Option D compounds this with “opsonin,” which isn’t even a vision-related term at all – it’s an immune-system protein that tags pathogens for destruction, borrowed here only because it sounds like “opsin.”

That leaves option C: rhodopsin splits into opsin and retinal. Thus, the correct answer is (C).

Summary to learn

Rhodopsin, the light-sensitive pigment inside rod cells, is a complex of the protein opsin and the light-absorbing molecule retinal (a derivative of vitamin A). Absorbing light doesn’t build rhodopsin — it breaks rhodopsin apart, as retinal changes shape and detaches from opsin, and that structural change is what triggers the nerve impulse sent to the brain.

The diagram represents the fluid mosaic model of a cell membrane.

IMAT 2020 question 27 figure

Which one of the labels 1-5 shows a hydrophobic region of a molecule?

  • A4
  • B5
  • C2
  • D3
  • E1
Correct answer: D 3

Full explanation

The diagram represents the fluid mosaic model of a cell membrane.

Label 1 indicates the carbohydrate molecule attaching the external surface of the cell membrane. It is a polar molecule

Label 2 indicates the phospholipid head which is hydrophilic and face outside.

Label 3 indicates the phospholipid tail which is made up of hydrophobic fatty acid chains and face inside. This shows the hydrophobic region of a molecule.

Label 4 indicates a part of the membrane protein which is facing outside in exposure to water. This is hydrophilic.

Label 5 indicates a part of peripheral protein which face the outside in exposure to water. This is another hydrophilic part.

Thus, the correct option is option D) 3.

Summary to learn

The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as a phospholipid bilayer studded with proteins and carbohydrate chains. Each phospholipid has a hydrophilic (water-loving) phosphate head facing outward into the watery environment on either side of the membrane, and a hydrophobic (water-fearing) fatty-acid tail facing inward, away from water — so a question about which part of the membrane is hydrophobic is almost always pointing at the tail region, not the head or the surface proteins.

The diagrams show animal cells from organisms that sexually reproduce. Each diagram shows a single cell containing chromosomes during cell division. Which one of the following diagrams has a correct description for a cell from an organism with a haploid number of 4? [Assume that the sex of the organism is inherited in the same way as in humans.]

  • ACell from a male organism with a diploid number of 8 during anaphase of first division of meiosis.
  • BCell has a diploid number of 8 showing the chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis.
  • CCell from a female organism with 8 chromosomes during metaphase of mitosis.
  • DCell from a female organism with 4 chromatids during metaphase of mitosis.
  • ECell from a male organism with 16 chromatids during prophase of meiosis.
Correct answer: E Cell from a male organism with 16 chromatids during prophase of meiosis.

Full explanation

A cell from an organism with a haploid number of 4 have 8 homologous chromosomes.

Option A Explanation:

Diagram does not have a correct description because in Meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate, not sister chromatids.

Option B Explanation:

Diagram does not have a correct description because in Mitosis, all 8 homologous chromosomes align in metaphase plate during mitosis and then separate in Anaphase. The diagram mentions only 4 chromosomes.

Option C Explanation:

Diagram does not have a correct description because in Mitosis, sister chromatids separate, not homologous chromosomes.

Option D Explanation:

Diagram does not have a correct description because in Mitosis, all 8 homologous chromosomes align in metaphase plate during metaphase, not 4.

Option E Explanation:

Diagram has a correct description. The cell is in prophase, there are 8 chromosomes, in condensed shape without mitotic spindles.

Summary to learn

Correctly reading a chromosome diagram means checking three things together: the total chromosome count shown (which should match the stated ploidy), the phase of division (condensed but not yet aligned = prophase; aligned at the cell’s equator = metaphase; moving apart toward opposite poles = anaphase), and exactly what is separating (whole homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I, while sister chromatids separate during meiosis II and during ordinary mitosis). A description only counts as fully correct when the chromosome number, the phase, and what’s separating are all consistent with one another.

In 1981, an immature male finch (Geospiza conirostris) arrived on an island in the Galapagos. This male finch was similar to finches of the species (G. fortis) living on the island. However, G.conirostris was 70% larger than G. fortis and had a distinctly different song. The diagram shows how, after observing further generations, a new species has evolved.

IMAT 2020 question 29 figure

The success of the new species is due to its larger bill and body size and its unique song. Which of the following terms is/are illustrated by this information? 1 sympatric speciation 2 reproductive isolation 3 post-zygotic isolation

  • A3 only
  • B2 only
  • C1 and 2 only
  • D2 and 3 only
  • E1 only
Correct answer: B 2 only

Full explanation

Speciation

There are 2 main types of speciation :

1. Allopatric Speciation (“Geographical Isolation”)

2. Sympatric Speciation (“No Physical Barrier”, A new species evolves within the same geographical area.) – This is not the case here because the two parents are from different species and different region. Therefore, the first term illustrated in the question is incorrect.

Isolation

Isolation prevents gene flow between populations, allowing genetic differences to accumulate. In this case, the new species no longer mates with the original parent generation, so reproductive isolation is happening. (The 2nd term illustrated in the question is correct).

There are two main types of reproductive isolation that contribute to speciation:

3. Pre-zygotic Isolation (Before Fertilization)

4. Post-zygotic Isolation (After Fertilization)

In this case, the success of the new species is due to the pre-zygotic isolation because the reproductive barrier here is behavioral (pre-zygotic) — through song differences and large bill and body size, leading to mate choice preferences before fertilization. (Mating doesn’t happen with original parent generation). So, it is not post-zygotic. (The 3rd term illustrated in question is wrong)

Thus, the only correct term for the success of new species is 2. Reproductive isolation.

Summary to learn

Reproductive isolation — two populations no longer interbreeding — is the mechanism that actually drives speciation, and it comes in two forms: pre-zygotic isolation prevents mating or fertilisation from happening at all (for example, differences in courtship song or body size that change which individuals choose each other as mates), while post-zygotic isolation allows mating to occur but produces offspring that are inviable or infertile afterward. Sympatric speciation, by contrast, describes something else entirely — a new species forming without any geographic separation from the parent population — and is a separate concept from which type of isolation is involved.

A single base mutation occurs in a gene. Which of the following is/are possible effects on the protein produced as a result of this mutation? 1 The protein has an altered tertiary structure. 2 The protein is shorter in length. 3 The protein is unchanged.

  • A2 and 3 only
  • B1, 2 and 3
  • C1 and 2 only
  • D1 and 3 only
  • E1 only
Correct answer: B 1, 2 and 3

Full explanation

A single base mutation (point mutation) can have different effects on the protein, depending on the type of mutation that occurs.

These are

– Missense mutation is a type of point mutation where a single base change in the DNA sequence leads to the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein. This can result in a change in the protein’s tertiary structure, potentially altering its function.

– Nonsense mutation is a type of point mutation where a single base change converts a codon into a premature stop codon, causing early termination of translation and producing a shorter, usually nonfunctional protein.

– Silent mutation is a type of point mutation where a single base change occurs but does not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein, due to the redundancy (degeneracy) of the genetic code.

Thus, all of the mentioned effects are the possible effects on a single base mutation.

Summary to learn

A single base-pair change (point mutation) can have three broad outcomes, depending on exactly how it alters the genetic code read during translation: a silent mutation changes a base without changing the resulting amino acid, thanks to the redundancy built into the genetic code; a missense mutation substitutes in a different amino acid and can alter how the protein folds; and a nonsense mutation creates a premature stop codon, truncating the protein partway through. All three are genuinely possible outcomes of a single point mutation, which is why a broad “any of these could happen” answer is often the correct one for this style of question.

Which one of the following is an example of catabolism in healthy human cells?

  • Aformation of RuBisCo
  • Breplication of DNA
  • Coxidation of NADH
  • DATP made during glycolysis
  • Eattachment of tRNA to mRNA
Correct answer: C oxidation of NADH

Full explanation

Catabolism refers to the breakdown of molecules to release energy. It is the destructive phase of metabolism, in contrast to anabolism, which involves building complex molecules.

Option A Explanation:

A) formation of RuBisCo

(Anabolic) RuBisCo (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase) is an enzyme involved in the Calvin cycle(photosynthesis), which is an anabolic process. Humans do not synthesize RuBisCo.

Option B Explanation:

B) replication of DNA

(Anabolic) DNA replication builds new DNA strands, requiring nucleotides and ATP, making it an anabolic process.

Option C Explanation:

C) oxidation of NADH

(Catabolic) NADH is oxidized to NAD⁺ in the electron transport chain (ETC) during cellular respiration. This process releases energy to drive ATP production, making it a classic example of catabolism.

Option D Explanation:

D) ATP made during glycolysis

ATP synthesis itself is not catabolic; rather, it is a result of catabolic reactions (like glycolysis).

Option E Explanation:

E) attachment of tRNA to mRNA

(Anabolic) This occurs during translation, which is an anabolic process because it builds proteins from amino acids.

Summary to learn

Catabolism is the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones to release usable energy (such as the oxidation steps of cellular respiration), while anabolism is the building of complex molecules from simpler ones, which requires an input of energy (such as DNA replication, protein synthesis, or the synthesis of ATP itself). A quick test: if a process breaks bonds and releases energy, it’s catabolic; if it builds new bonds and consumes energy, it’s anabolic.

The diagram shows how recombinant DNA can be used to make cotton plants produce an insect toxin. The insect toxin kills any insect that can damage the cotton crop.

IMAT 2020 question 32 figure

What are the TWO functions of the Agrobacterium tumefaciens bacteria in this process? 1 They stimulate cell division in cotton plant seeds. 2 They supply the plasmid vector. 3 They are the source of the gene for the production of the insect toxin. 4 They are the source of the gene for antibiotic resistance.

  • A1 and 3 only
  • B1 and 4 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1 and 2 only
  • E2 and 4 only
Correct answer: D 1 and 2 only

Full explanation

Analysis of the given functions

1. They stimulate cell division in cotton plant seeds.

– Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known for causing tumors in plants by inserting its tumor-inducing plasmid into plant cells.

– This stimulates uncontrolled cell division, leading to tumor formation, which is used here to grow genetically modified cotton plants.

2. They supply the plasmid vector.

– The plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used as a vector to transfer the insect toxin gene (from Bacillus thuringiensis) into cotton plant cells.

3. They are the source of the gene for the production of the insect toxin.

– Incorrect because the insect toxin gene comes from Bacillus thuringiensis, not Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

4. They are the source of the gene for antibiotic resistance.

– Incorrect because the antibiotic resistance gene is artificially inserted into the plasmid, not naturally provided by Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Thus, TWO correct functions of the Agrobacterium tumefaciens bacteria in this process are 1 and 2.

Summary to learn

Producing a genetically modified organism through a bacterial vector splits the work between two separate organisms: one organism supplies the gene of interest (here, the insect-toxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis), while a second organism’s plasmid serves as the vector that actually carries and delivers that gene into the target cells (here, a plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens, which naturally causes plant tumours by inserting its own plasmid into plant cells). Mixing up “supplies the gene” with “supplies the vector” is the easiest way to get this kind of question wrong.

The heart of a developing human fetus normally has a hole in the septum. The septum separates the right atrium and the left atrium. Which one of the statements about the circulation in the developing fetus with a hole in the septum is correct?

  • ABlood entering the right atrium can bypass the lungs and go to the rest of the body.
  • BBlood in the right atrium may return directly to the vena cava.
  • CThe atrioventricular node will not cause ventricular systole.
  • DBlood in the pulmonary artery will go directly to the aorta.
  • EThe maximum pressure in the aorta is the same as the maximum pressure in the contracting atrium.
Correct answer: A Blood entering the right atrium can bypass the lungs and go to the rest of the body.

Full explanation

In a developing human fetus, the lungs are non-functional because the fetus gets oxygen from the placenta through the umbilical cord. To bypass the lungs, the fetal circulation has two key shunts:

1. Foramen ovale — A hole in the atrial septum that allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the lungs.

2. Ductus arteriosus — A vessel that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, further bypassing the lungs.

Since the foramen ovale is an opening in the septum, blood from the right atrium can directly enter the left atrium, skipping the pulmonary circulation and being pumped to the rest of the body.

Option A Explanation:

A) Blood entering the right atrium can bypass the lungs and go to the rest of the body.

This statement is correct.

Option B Explanation:

B) Blood in the right atrium may return directly to the vena cava.

Blood does not flow backward into the vena cava; it moves forward into the left atrium through the foramen ovale.

Option C Explanation:

C) The atrioventricular node will not cause ventricular systole.

The atrioventricular (AV) node remains functional, and ventricular systole still occurs normally, even in a fetus.

Option D Explanation:

D) Blood in the pulmonary artery will go directly to the aorta.

This describes the function of the ductus arteriosus, not the hole in the septum (foramen ovale).

Option E Explanation:

E) The maximum pressure in the aorta is the same as the maximum pressure in the contracting atrium.

The aortic pressure is much higher than atrial pressure because the aorta supplies systemic circulation, which has high resistance.

Summary to learn

Because a fetus’s lungs aren’t yet used for gas exchange (oxygen instead comes from the placenta), fetal circulation includes two shunts that bypass the lungs entirely: the foramen ovale, a hole in the septum between the two atria, and the ductus arteriosus, a vessel connecting the pulmonary artery directly to the aorta. Both allow blood to skip the pulmonary circuit and go straight out to the rest of the body — exactly what a persistent hole in the atrial septum describes.

Which of the following statements about bile in the digestive system are correct? 1 It emulsifies fat globules. 2 It dilutes the contents of the small intestine. 3 It lowers the activation energy of lipase. 4 It helps to reduce the acidity of the contents leaving the stomach.

  • A1, 2 and 3 only
  • B1, 2 and 4 only
  • C1 and 2 only
  • D2 and 3 only
  • E1 and 4 only
Correct answer: B 1, 2 and 4 only

Full explanation

Bile is a digestive fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. It plays a crucial role in fat digestion by emulsifying large lipid droplets into smaller ones, increasing their surface area for enzymes like lipase to act on, which enhances fat breakdown and absorption in the small intestine.

Analysis of the given statements

1. It emulsifies fat globules. Bile contains bile salts, which break large fat globules into smaller droplets  (emulsification). This increases the surface area for lipase to act on, aiding in fat digestion. Fat globules are large, spherical droplets of fat that form when lipids are released into the digestive system. They are hydrophobic and tend to clump together in water-based environments like the small intestine.

2. It dilutes the contents of the small intestine. When released into the duodenum, it dilutes chyme (partially digested food) and facilitates digestion.

3. It lowers the activation energy of lipase. Bile does not function as an enzyme.

4. It helps to reduce the acidity of the contents leaving the stomach. Bile contains bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻), which neutralizes acidic chyme from the stomach.

Thus, the correct statements are 1, 2 and 4

Summary to learn

Bile, made continuously by the liver and stored and concentrated in the gallbladder, plays several distinct roles in digestion: its bile salts emulsify large fat globules into smaller droplets, increasing their surface area for lipase to act on (though bile itself is not an enzyme, so it doesn’t lower lipase’s activation energy), and its bicarbonate content neutralises the acidic chyme arriving from the stomach while also diluting the intestinal contents. Telling apart bile’s genuine roles from a role that sounds plausible but actually belongs to an enzyme is the crux of this kind of question.

What is the correct order of the following events that occur immediately after acetylcholine binds to postsynaptic receptors of a muscle fibre, causing the muscle to contract? 1 Ca2+ ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm. 2 The muscle fibre membrane is depolarised. 3 The myosin binding site on the actin filament is uncovered.

  • A2, 1, 3
  • B2, 3, 1
  • C3, 2, 1
  • D1, 2, 3
  • E1, 3, 2
Correct answer: A 2, 1, 3

Full explanation

Immediately after acetylcholine binds to postsynaptic receptors of a muscle fibre, Na+ channels open, leading to depolarization of the membrane and the generation of an action potential. The action potential travels along the T-tubules and reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). This causes voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels in the SR to open, releasing Ca²⁺ ions into the sarcoplasm. Ca²⁺ binds to troponin, which causes a conformational change. This moves tropomyosin away from the myosin-binding sites on the actin filament, allowing myosin to bind to actin and initiate contraction.

Thus, the correct order is 2,1,3

Summary to learn

Excitation-contraction coupling in a skeletal muscle fibre follows a fixed sequence: acetylcholine binding first depolarises the muscle fibre membrane, that depolarisation travels into the cell along the T-tubules and triggers the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release Ca2+ into the sarcoplasm, and that calcium then binds troponin, shifting tropomyosin aside to uncover the myosin-binding sites on actin. The electrical signal (depolarisation) always has to come before the calcium release, which in turn always has to come before the binding site is uncovered — calcium can’t be released before the membrane signal arrives, and the binding site can’t be exposed before the calcium arrives.

Which of the following is/are features of HIV? 1 It has a capsid. 2 It contains DNA. 3 It has ribosomes.

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C3 only
  • D2 only
  • E1 only
Correct answer: E 1 only

Full explanation

Features of HIV

– HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is an enveloped virus, and like all viruses, it has a protein capsid that encloses its genetic material.

– It is a retrovirus, meaning its genetic material is single-stranded RNA (ssRNA), not DNA. HIV carries three essential enzymes: reverse transcriptase, integrase and protease.

– Viruses do not have ribosomes. They rely entirely on the host cell’s ribosomes for protein synthesis because they cannot make proteins on their own.

Thus, the correct option is option E) 1 only.

Summary to learn

HIV is a retrovirus: its genome is single-stranded RNA, not DNA, and like every virus it has no ribosomes of its own, relying entirely on a host cell’s ribosomes to make its proteins. What it does have, like all viruses, is a protein capsid enclosing its genetic material — capsid present, but no DNA and no ribosomes, is a useful general template for this style of virus-structure question.

Which one of the structures listed is NOT involved in the reabsorption of water in a healthy human?

  • Adistal convoluted tubule
  • Bcollecting duct
  • Cproximal convoluted tubule
  • Dglomerulus
  • Eloop of Henle
Correct answer: D glomerulus

Full explanation

Option A Explanation:

A) distal convoluted tubule

Reabsorbs water under the influence of aldosterone and ADH and plays a role in fine-tuning ion and fluid balance. Remember, ADH has effect on both DCT and collecting duct, but it has an even stronger effect, allowing much more water reabsorption depending on body hydration.

Option B Explanation:

B) collecting duct

Regulates final water reabsorption under the influence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), concentrating urine when necessary.

Option C Explanation:

C) proximal convoluted tubule

Reabsorbs about 65-70% of water by passive transport, along with glucose, amino acids, and ions, through active and passive transport mechanisms.

Option D Explanation:

D) glomerulus

The glomerulus is responsible for filtration, not reabsorption.

Option E Explanation:

E) loop of Henle

Specifically, the descending limb is permeable to water, allowing further water reabsorption via osmosis, while the ascending limb is impermeable to water.

Summary to learn

In the nephron, the glomerulus’s job is filtration — pushing fluid out of the blood and into the nephron tubule — not reabsorption. Water reabsorption instead happens further along the tubule: substantially in the proximal convoluted tubule (passively, alongside glucose, amino acids, and ions), and then in a hormone-regulated way in the loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct, where antidiuretic hormone (ADH) fine-tunes exactly how much water gets reclaimed depending on the body’s hydration state.

Which row shows three structures found in a healthy human male liver cell, in order of size from largest to smallest? [Assume that there are no mutations in the cell.]

RowLargestMiddleSmallest
1Y chromosome→nucleosome→histone
2nucleosome→X chromosome→Y chromosome
3histone→nucleosome→X chromosome
4Y chromosome→X chromosome→histone
5X chromosome→histone→nucleosome
  • Arow 1
  • Brow 4
  • Crow 5
  • Drow 3
  • Erow 2
Correct answer: A row 1

Full explanation

A cell from a healthy human male carries one X and one Y chromosome, packaged the same way as every other chromosome: DNA is wound around clusters of histone proteins to form nucleosomes, and nucleosomes are what make up a chromosome. So in terms of pure size, a whole chromosome is far larger than a nucleosome, and a nucleosome is in turn larger than a single histone protein – the order has to run chromosome → nucleosome → histone.

Row 1 (Y chromosome → nucleosome → histone) follows exactly that hierarchy, which is why it’s correct. Rows 2, 3 and 5 can be eliminated straight away because they put a nucleosome or a histone ahead of a chromosome, breaking the size order completely.

Row 4 (Y chromosome → X chromosome → histone) is the one worth a second look, because it also opens with a chromosome and closes with a histone, just like row 1 – it swaps in the X chromosome for the nucleosome in the middle. That substitution is what breaks it: the X chromosome is considerably larger than the Y chromosome (it carries roughly three times as many genes), so if two chromosomes were being ranked against each other, X would have to come first, not Y. Row 4’s “Y chromosome → X chromosome” ordering has that comparison backwards, which rules it out.

That leaves row 1 as the only option with a size ordering that holds up all the way through. Thus, the correct option is A) row 1.

Summary to learn

DNA packaging inside the nucleus builds up in clear stages of increasing size: a histone protein is the smallest unit on its own, DNA wound around a cluster of eight histones forms a nucleosome, and many nucleosomes strung together and further coiled make up a whole chromosome. So for any “largest to smallest” ordering of these three structures, the sequence always has to run chromosome → nucleosome → histone — while comparing two different whole chromosomes against each other (such as X versus Y) needs a separate fact entirely, namely their relative size (the X chromosome carries roughly three times as many genes as the Y chromosome, making it noticeably larger).

Which of the following statements about healthy living organisms are correct? 1 They are made up of one or more cells. 2 They have DNA as the genetic material. 3 They use energy to stay alive when their surroundings change. 4 They undergo phases of growth.

  • A1, 2 and 4 only
  • B1, 2, 3 and 4
  • C1, 2 and 3 only
  • D2, 3 and 4 only
  • E1, 3 and 4 only
Correct answer: B 1, 2, 3 and 4

Full explanation

Living organisms are defined by several fundamental characteristics. They are composed of one or more cells, the basic units of life. They perform metabolism, carrying out chemical reactions to obtain and use energy. Living things maintain homeostasis, keeping internal conditions stable. They undergo growth and development, increasing in size and complexity. Reproduction ensures the continuation of their species, either sexually or asexually. Organisms also respond to stimuli from their environment and exhibit heredity, passing genetic information (typically DNA) to their offspring. Together, these features distinguish living organisms from non-living matter.

Analysis of each statement

1. They are made up of one or more cells. This is a fundamental principle of cell theory: all living organisms consist of one or more cells. Unicellular organisms (like bacteria) have a single cell, while multicellular organisms (like humans) have many.

2. They have DNA as the genetic material. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the universal genetic material in known living organisms.

3. They use energy to stay alive when their surroundings change. Organisms require energy (from food, sunlight, or chemical sources) to maintain homeostasis and survive environmental changes.

4. They undergo phases of growth. Growth is a characteristic of all living organisms. Cells divide and increase in size, allowing unicellular organisms to expand and multicellular organisms to develop and mature.

Summary to learn

Every living organism shares a defined set of characteristics: being made of one or more cells, possessing DNA as its genetic material, carrying out metabolism to obtain and use energy (including responding appropriately when its surroundings change), maintaining homeostasis, growing, reproducing, and responding to stimuli. A statement about living things is only wrong if it actually misdescribes one of these characteristics — not simply because it’s phrased less formally than a textbook definition.

The diagrams show five different microscopic structures. The structures are not drawn to the same scale. Which of these structures is the smallest?

IMAT 2020 question 40 figure
  • A4
  • B5
  • C1
  • D3
  • E2
Correct answer: E 2

Full explanation

Diagram 1 describes a chloroplast. The size is (4 × 10-2)/4000 = 1 × 10-5 m.

Diagram 2 describes a bacterium. The size is 0.5 micrometre, which is 5 × 10-7 m.

Diagram 3 describes a mitochondrion. The size is (6 × 10-2)/20000 = 3 × 10-6 m.

Diagram 4 describes possibly a cell. The size is 0.14 mm, which is 1.4 × 10-4 m.

Diagram 5 describes a neuron. The size is (3 × 10-2)/400 = 7.5 × 10-5 m.

Comparing all the structures, the smallest one is the bacterium.

Thus, the correct option is option E) 2.

Summary to learn

Converting a scale-drawing size into a real-world size always uses the same formula, whatever the structure shown: real size = drawing (or scale-bar) size ÷ magnification. Keeping every value in consistent units — typically metres, using standard prefixes such as micro- (10-6) and milli- (10-3) — before comparing sizes avoids the most common source of error in this kind of question.

Chemistry

General, inorganic, organic & biochemistry · 12 questions
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What does the formula Br₂ represent?

  • Aa compound of the element bromine
  • Btwo separate atoms of the element bromine
  • Ca molecule of the element bromine
  • Da molecule of the compound bromine
  • Etwo bromide ions
Correct answer: C a molecule of the element bromine

Full explanation

Br₂ consists of two bromine (Br) atoms covalently bonded.

Bromine is a diatomic element, meaning it naturally exists as a molecule of two atoms.

Br₂ is not a compound because it contains only one type of element (bromine).

Option A Explanation:

A) a compound of the element bromine

A compound consists of two or more different elements. Br₂ contains only bromine, so it is not a compound.

Option B Explanation:

B) two separate atoms of the element bromine

Br₂ is a single molecule where two bromine atoms are covalently bonded. It does not represent two separate bromine atoms.

Option C Explanation:

C) a molecule of the element bromine

Br₂ is a molecule because it consists of two atoms chemically bonded. Since it contains only bromine atoms, it is a molecule of the element bromine.

Option D Explanation:

D) a molecule of the compound bromine

Br₂ is not a compound because it contains only one type of element. A compound must have two or more different elements.

Option E Explanation:

E) two bromide ions

Br₂ is neutral, not charged. Bromide ions (Br⁻) are negatively charged and exist as separate entities in ionic compounds like NaBr.

Summary to learn

An element made of two identical atoms bonded together (such as Br2, O2, N2, or H2) is called a diatomic molecule of that element — it is still a single element, not a compound, because a compound by definition requires at least two different elements bonded together. Keeping “molecule” (a bonded group of atoms) distinct from “compound” (specifically atoms of different elements) is worth having automatic, since these terms are mixed up constantly in exam options.

An atom has atomic number x and a mass number of 2x + 6 How many neutrons are in the nucleus of this atom?

  • A6
  • Bx — 6
  • Cx + 3
  • Dx + 6
  • Ex — 3
Correct answer: D x + 6

Full explanation

The atomic number (Z) of an atom counts only its protons, while the mass number (A) counts protons and neutrons together. So the number of neutrons is always the mass number minus the atomic number: neutrons = A – Z.

Here the atomic number is given as x, so Z = x, and the mass number is given as 2x + 6, so A = 2x + 6.

Neutrons = A – Z = (2x + 6) – x = x + 6.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) x + 6.

Summary to learn

For any atom, the atomic number (Z) counts only its protons, while the mass number (A) counts protons and neutrons together, so the number of neutrons is always the mass number minus the atomic number (A − Z). When these two numbers are given as algebraic expressions rather than plain numbers, exactly the same subtraction still applies — it’s just carried out symbolically instead of numerically.

Which of the following is the equation for the reaction of magnesium with excess cold water?

  • AMg + 2H₂O → Mg(OH)₂ + H₂
  • BMg + H₂O → Mg(OH)₂ + H₂
  • C2Mg + 2H₂O → 2MgOH + H₂
  • DMg + H₂O → MgO + H₂
  • E2Mg + H₂O → Mg₂O + H₂
Correct answer: A Mg + 2H₂O → Mg(OH)₂ + H₂

Full explanation

As a general rule, if a metal reacts with cold water, the metal hydroxide and hydrogen is produced. If it reacts with steam, the metal oxide and hydrogen is formed. This is because the metal hydroxides thermally decompose to the oxide and water.

Option A Explanation:

A) Mg + 2H₂O → Mg(OH)₂ + H₂

Reaction of Magnesium with cold water produce magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)₂) and Hydrogen gas. This equation correctly describes the reaction happened and it is balanced.

Option B Explanation:

B) Mg + H₂O → Mg(OH)₂ + H₂

The equation is not balanced.

Option C Explanation:

C) 2Mg + 2H₂O → 2MgOH + H₂

MgOH is not a valid compound. MgOH would have an unbalanced charge (+2 from Mg and -1 from OH), so it’s chemically invalid.

Option D Explanation:

D) Mg + H₂O → MgO + H₂

Magnesium reacts very slowly with cold water, producing only small amounts of magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas, a reaction often considered negligible. However, when exposed to steam, magnesium reacts much more readily, forming magnesium oxide (MgO) and hydrogen gas. The reaction with steam is faster and more complete, favoring the formation of the oxide rather than the hydroxide, which is typical in the slower reaction with cold water.

Option E Explanation:

E) 2Mg + H₂O → Mg₂O + H₂

wrong stoichiometry and product

Summary to learn

A reactive metal reacting with cold water typically produces the metal hydroxide plus hydrogen gas, while the same metal reacting with steam (much hotter) typically produces the metal oxide plus hydrogen gas instead, because the hydroxide would thermally decompose into the oxide and water at that higher temperature. Magnesium illustrates this well: it reacts only slowly with cold water to give Mg(OH)2, but reacts far more readily with steam to give MgO.

Which of the following substances has the weakest overall intermolecular forces? [atomic numbers: H = 1; C = 6; N = 7; O = 8; F = 9]

  • AH₂O
  • BCH₄
  • CHF
  • DNH₃
  • ECO₂
Correct answer: B CH₄

Full explanation

Intermolecular forces (IMFs) are the attractive forces between molecules. They determine properties like boiling point, solubility, and state of matter.

The main types of intermolecular forces are :

– London dispersion forces (weakest) among all types of molecules, but the only type of intermolecular forces between the non-polar molecules.

– Dipole-dipole interactions, between the polar molecules.

– Hydrogen bonding (strongest), between the polar molecules which are able to donate and accept hydrogen bonds.

Option A Explanation:

A) H₂O (Water)

– Highly polar molecule.

– Forms hydrogen bonds (H attached to O).

Option B Explanation:

B) CH₄ (Methane)

– Nonpolar molecule (tetrahedral symmetry cancels dipoles).

– Only London Dispersion Forces.

Option C Explanation:

C) HF (Hydrogen Fluoride)

– Very polar molecule.

– Strong hydrogen bonding (H attached to F).

Option D Explanation:

D) NH₃ (Ammonia)

– Polar molecule.

– Forms hydrogen bonds (H attached to N).

Option E Explanation:

E) CO₂ (Carbon Dioxide)

– Nonpolar (linear symmetry cancels dipoles).

– Only London Dispersion Forces but more electrons than CH₄ → slightly stronger IMFs than CH₄.

The molecule with the weakest overall intermolecular forces is CH₄ (methane) because:

It is nonpolar and it only has weak London Dispersion Forces .

Thus, the correct option is option B) CH₄

Summary to learn

Intermolecular forces form a hierarchy of strength: London (dispersion) forces are present between every pair of molecules and are the only force acting between non-polar molecules; dipole-dipole forces add extra attraction between polar molecules; and hydrogen bonding, the strongest of the three, occurs specifically where hydrogen is bonded directly to a small, highly electronegative atom (N, O, or F). A small, symmetric, non-polar molecule like methane (CH4), held together only by weak dispersion forces between relatively few electrons, sits right at the bottom of this hierarchy.

Sucrose, C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ , is added to water at 20 °C until no more sucrose will dissolve. Four statements are made about sucrose and the solution that is produced: 1 A saturated solution of sucrose is produced. 2 The freezing point of the solution is 0 °C. 3 Sucrose is a non-polar substance. 4 Sucrose is the solute. Which two statements are correct?

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B3 and 1 only
  • C3 and 4 only
  • D2 and 3 only
  • E1 and 4 only
Correct answer: E 1 and 4 only

Full explanation

Sucrose, C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ , is added to water at 20 °C until no more sucrose will dissolve.

Analysis of the given statements

1. A saturated solution of sucrose is produced. (Correct) A solution is saturated when no more solute (sucrose) can dissolve at a given temperature. Since the problem states that sucrose is added until no more dissolves, a saturated solution is formed.

2. The freezing point of the solution is 0 °C. (Incorrect) When a solute (sucrose) is dissolved in water, the freezing point decreases due to freezing point depression. The solution will freeze at a temperature lower than 0°C, depending on the concentration of sucrose.

3. Sucrose is a non-polar substance. (Incorrect) Sucrose is polar due to its numerous OH (hydroxyl) groups, which allow it to dissolve in water (a polar solvent). If sucrose were non-polar, it wouldn’t dissolve in water.

4. Sucrose is the solute. (Correct) In a solution, the solute is the substance that dissolves, and the solvent is the substance that does the dissolving. Here, sucrose is dissolved in water, making it the solute.

Thus, the correct option is option E) 1 and 4 only

Summary to learn

A solution is saturated once no more solute will dissolve into it at a given temperature — here, sucrose is the solute and water the solvent. Dissolving any solute into water lowers the resulting solution’s freezing point below the pure solvent’s own freezing point (freezing point depression), so a saturated sugar solution never freezes at exactly 0°C; and sucrose itself must actually be polar, not non-polar, since only polar (or hydrogen-bonding) solutes dissolve appreciably in a polar solvent like water in the first place.

Which of the following pairs of molecules are structural isomers?

IMAT 2020 question 46 figure
  • A1 and 3 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1, 2 and 3
  • D2 only
  • E3 only
Correct answer: A 1 and 3 only

Full explanation

The first pair of molecules are cyclopentane and pentene.

– Cyclopentane has the molecular formula C₅H₁₀.

– Pentene refers to a group of alkenes with the molecular formula C₅H₁₀.

Since they have the same molecular formula but different connectivity, they are structural (constitutional) isomers.

The second pair of molecules are 3-chloro-3-methylheptane and 3-chloro-3-methylheptane.

– Both molecules have the same molecular formula (C₈H₁₇Cl) and the same connectivity of atoms.

However, They differ in spatial arrangement (e.g., due to chirality), they are stereoisomers, not structural isomers.

The third pair of molecules are butanenitrile and 2-buten-1-amine

– Both molecules have the same molecular formula (C₄H₇N)

– One has a nitrile (-CN) functional group. The other has an amine (-NH₂) functional group and a C=C double bond.

Since they have the same molecular formula but different connectivity, they are structural (constitutional) isomers.

Thus, the correct option is option A) 1 and 3 only

Summary to learn

Structural (constitutional) isomers share a molecular formula but differ in how their atoms are actually connected — a different functional group, a different carbon skeleton, or the same atoms bonded together in a different pattern. Stereoisomers, by contrast, share both the same formula and the same connectivity, differing only in the three-dimensional spatial arrangement around a point (typically a carbon bonded to four different groups) — so two structures that are really “the same molecule” but drawn as mirror images of each other, without anything actually re-bonded, represent stereoisomers rather than structural isomers.

P, Q and R represent substances involved in a gaseous reaction. The equilibrium constant (K c) and the sign of the enthalpy change for the reaction are:

IMAT 2020 question 47 figure

Assuming that all other conditions remain constant, a change in which factor results in an increase of the value of the equilibrium constant, K c?

  • Aan increase in pressure
  • Buse of a suitable catalyst
  • Ca decrease in temperature
  • Da decrease in pressure
  • Ean increase in temperature
Correct answer: C a decrease in temperature

Full explanation

The diagram below shows the equilibrium constant expression for this reaction, together with its enthalpy change:

IMAT 2020 question 47 figure

The negative sign of the enthalpy change shown means that the reaction is exothermic.

We need to determine which factor increases Kc.

Option A Explanation:

A) an increase in pressure

Pressure affects equilibrium position but not the equilibrium constant Kc.

Option B Explanation:

B) use of a suitable catalyst

A catalyst only speeds up reaction rates without affecting the position of equilibrium or Kc.

Option C Explanation:

C) a decrease in temperature

Since the reaction is exothermic, decreasing the temperature shifts equilibrium towards the products (favoring P), increasing Kc.

This option is correct.

Option D Explanation:

D) a decrease in pressure

Pressure affects equilibrium position but not the equilibrium constant Kc.

Option E Explanation:

E) an increase in temperature

If temperature increases, the equilibrium shifts towards the reactants (favoring Q and R), decreasing Kc.

Summary to learn

Le Chatelier’s principle predicts that raising or lowering the temperature shifts a chemical equilibrium — and therefore shifts its equilibrium constant, Kc, along with it — in whichever direction absorbs (endothermic) or releases (exothermic) that added or removed heat. Pressure changes and catalysts, by contrast, can shift the position of an equilibrium or the rate at which it’s reached, but neither one ever changes the numerical value of Kc itself.

Which of the following molecules has a permanent overall dipole moment? [C is in Group IV; N and P are in Group V; O and S are in Group VI; F and Cl are in Group VII]

  • ANF₃
  • BPCl₅
  • CSF₆
  • DCCl₄
  • ECO₂
Correct answer: A NF₃

Full explanation

To determine which molecule has a permanent overall dipole moment, we need to analyze molecular geometry and bond dipoles. A molecule has a permanent dipole moment if:

1. It has polar bonds (atoms with different electronegativities).

2. The geometry does not cancel out the dipoles.

Option A Explanation:

A) NF₃

Shape: Trigonal pyramidal (like NH₃).

Bond Polarity: N-F bonds are polar (F is more electronegative than N).

Dipole Moment: The dipoles do not cancel due to the lone pair on N, leading to an asymmetric charge distribution. NF₃ has a permanent dipole moment.

Option B Explanation:

B) PCl₅

Shape: Trigonal bipyramidal.

Bond Polarity: P-Cl bonds are polar.

Dipole Moment: The molecular symmetry cancels out the dipoles. No overall dipole moment.

Option C Explanation:

C) SF₆

Shape: Octahedral.

Bond Polarity: S-F bonds are polar.

Dipole Moment: The symmetry causes the dipoles to cancel. No overall dipole moment.

Option D Explanation:

D) CCl₄

Shape: Tetrahedral.

Bond Polarity: C-Cl bonds are polar.

Dipole Moment: The symmetry cancels the dipoles. No overall dipole moment.

Option E Explanation:

E) CO₂

Shape : Linear.

Bond Polarity: C=O bonds are polar.

Dipole Moment: The two bond dipoles are equal and opposite, canceling out. No overall dipole moment.

Summary to learn

A molecule has a permanent overall dipole moment only if it has polar bonds and its molecular geometry doesn’t cancel those individual bond dipoles out through symmetry. Highly symmetric shapes — tetrahedral (CCl4), octahedral (SF6), trigonal bipyramidal (PCl5), or linear (CO2) — cancel their bond dipoles perfectly even though the individual bonds are themselves polar, while a shape distorted by a lone pair on the central atom (such as trigonal pyramidal NF3, like NH3) breaks that symmetry and leaves a net dipole.

Which of the following functional groups is present in cysteine?

IMAT 2020 question 49 figure
  • Athiol
  • Bketone
  • Cester
  • Dalcohol
  • Eamide
Correct answer: A thiol

Full explanation

Every amino acid shares the same backbone: an amino group (-NH₂) and a carboxyl group (-COOH) attached to a central carbon. What makes each amino acid different is its side chain, R. For cysteine, that side chain is -CH₂-SH, which ends in a sulfur-hydrogen bond – a thiol group.

The other four options are all real functional groups, just not cysteine’s: a ketone (C=O between two carbon chains) and an ester (-COO- linking two carbon groups) don’t appear anywhere in cysteine’s structure at all. An alcohol (-OH on a carbon) is the defining group of serine and threonine’s side chains, not cysteine’s. An amide (-CONH₂) is what you’d find in asparagine’s or glutamine’s side chain. None of these match the -SH group that cysteine actually carries.

Thus, the correct option is A) thiol.

Summary to learn

Every standard amino acid shares the same backbone (-NH2 and -COOH attached to a central carbon) and is distinguished from every other amino acid only by its side chain, the R-group. Cysteine’s R-group is -CH2-SH, ending in a thiol (sulfur-hydrogen) group — the only amino acid side chain built around sulfur this way, which is also why pairs of cysteine residues can form disulfide bonds that help hold a protein’s folded shape together.

In which of the following pairs of species does the vanadium, V, have the same oxidation state?

  • AVO₂ and VO₃⁻
  • BVO₂ and V₂O₅
  • CVCl₄ and VO²⁺
  • DVCl₄ and VO₃⁻
  • EV₂O₅ and VO²⁺
Correct answer: C VCl₄ and VO²⁺

Full explanation

To determine which pair of species contains vanadium (V) in the same oxidation state, we need to calculate its oxidation number in each compound.

Option A Explanation:

A) VO₂ and VO₃⁻

Let the oxidation state of V be x.

For VO₂, x + 2(-2) = 0, so x = +4.

For VO₃⁻, x + 3(-2) = -1, so x = -1 + 6 = +5.

Different oxidation states.

Option B Explanation:

B) VO₂ and V₂O₅

For VO₂ (calculated above): x = +4.

For V₂O₅, 2x + 5(-2) = 0, so x = 10/2 = +5.

Different oxidation states.

Option C Explanation:

C) VCl₄ and VO²⁺

For VCl₄, x + 4(-1) = 0, so x = +4.

For VO²⁺, x + (-2) = +2, so x = +4.

Same oxidation state.

Option D Explanation:

D) VCl₄ and VO₃⁻

For VCl₄ (calculated above): x = +4.

For VO₃⁻ (calculated above): x = +5.

Different oxidation states.

Option E Explanation:

E) V₂O₅ and VO²⁺

For V₂O₅ (calculated above): x = +5.

For VO²⁺ (calculated above): x = +4.

Different oxidation states.

Summary to learn

Finding an atom’s oxidation state inside a compound or ion uses one consistent rule: the oxidation states of every atom present, weighted by how many of each there are, must sum to the species’ overall charge (zero for a neutral compound, or the ion’s own charge for an ion) — with oxygen almost always taken as −2 and chlorine almost always as −1 in calculations like this. Working through that same equation for each species in turn is the most reliable way to compare oxidation states of the same element across several different compounds.

X and Y are acidic solutions. X has a pH of 2 and Y has a pH of 4 Which of the following statements about the hydrogen ion concentrations of X and Y is correct?

  • AY has a hydrogen ion concentration 2 times greater than X.
  • BX has a hydrogen ion concentration 100 times greater than Y.
  • CX has a hydrogen ion concentration 4 times greater than Y.
  • DY has a hydrogen ion concentration 100 times greater than X.
  • EX has a hydrogen ion concentration 2 times greater than Y.
Correct answer: B X has a hydrogen ion concentration 100 times greater than Y.

Full explanation

pH = -log [H⁺]

X : pH = 2, [H⁺] = 10-2 mol/L

Y : pH = 4, [H⁺] = 10-4 mol/L

Comparing the two solution, H⁺ concentration of X is 100 times greater than that of Y.

Summary to learn

pH is a logarithmic scale (pH = −log[H+]), so each single-unit drop in pH corresponds to a tenfold increase in hydrogen ion concentration, not merely a proportional change. A two-unit difference in pH — such as between pH 2 and pH 4 — therefore corresponds to a 10 × 10 = 100-fold difference in [H+].

40 cm³ of a solution of sodium hydroxide is exactly neutralised by 25 cm³ of 0.40 mol L⁻¹ sulfuric acid.

2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O

What is the concentration, in g L⁻¹ , of the sodium hydroxide solution? [Mr value: NaOH = 40]

  • A20 g L⁻¹
  • B5 g L⁻¹
  • C0.25 g L⁻¹
  • D10 g L⁻¹
  • E0.5 g L⁻¹
Correct answer: A 20 g L⁻¹

Full explanation

Given :

Volume of NaOH = 40 cm³

Concentration of H₂SO₄ = 25 cm³ = 0.025 L (1 L = 1000 cm³)

Volume of H₂SO₄ = 0.40 mol L⁻¹

To find the concentration of NaOH, we first need to find the mole of H₂SO₄ reacted.

mole of H₂SO₄ = concentration x volume = 0.4 mol/L x 0.025 L = 0.01 mol

From the balanced equation, 2 moles of NaOH react with 1 mole of H₂SO₄.

moles of NaOH = 2×0.01 = 0.02 moles

Thus, concentration of NaOH = mole/volume = 0.02 mol/0.04L = 0.5 mol/L

To convert the unit molL⁻¹ to g L⁻¹,

We are given the molar mass of NaOH:

Mr of NaOH=40 g/mol

Concentration in g/L = 0.5×40 = 20 g/L

Summary to learn

Titration calculations follow a fixed chain of steps: use concentration × volume to find the moles of the reactant whose amount you already know, use the balanced equation’s mole ratio to find the moles of the unknown reactant, divide by the unknown’s own volume to get its concentration in mol/L, and finally multiply by its molar mass to convert that into g/L. Keeping every volume in litres (not cm3) throughout the concentration × volume step is the detail most likely to trip this kind of calculation up.

Physics & Mathematics

Mechanics, electricity, thermodynamics, algebra & geometry · 8 questions
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Which of the following is equal to 2/(2 + √3)?

  • A1 − √3/2
  • B4 − 2√3
  • C4 + 2√3
  • D4/7 + 2√3/7
  • E4/7 − 2√3/7
Correct answer: B 4 − 2√3

Full explanation

Rationalise the denominator by multiplying numerator and denominator by the conjugate of (2 + √3), which is (2 − √3): 2/(2 + √3) × (2 − √3)/(2 − √3) = 2(2 − √3) / [(2 + √3)(2 − √3)].

Numerator: 2(2 − √3) = 4 − 2√3. Denominator (difference of squares): (2 + √3)(2 − √3) = 2² − (√3)² = 4 − 3 = 1.

So the expression simplifies to (4 − 2√3)/1 = 4 − 2√3.

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

Summary to learn

To rationalise a denominator containing a surd expression like 2 + √3, multiply both the numerator and the denominator by its conjugate, 2 − √3 — since (a+b)(a−b) = a² − b² removes the square root from the denominator entirely, leaving a whole number there instead.

What are the coordinates of the turning point of the graph of the quadratic equation y = 2x² + 5x − 2?

  • A(−5/4, −41/16)
  • B(−5/4, −41/8)
  • C(5/4, −41/16)
  • D(−5/2, −41/8)
  • E(−5/2, −41/16)
Correct answer: B (−5/4, −41/8)

Full explanation

For y = ax² + bx + c, the turning point’s x-coordinate is x = −b/2a. Here a = 2, b = 5, c = −2, so x = −5/(2×2) = −5/4.

Substitute x = −5/4 back into the equation to find the y-coordinate: y = 2(−5/4)² + 5(−5/4) − 2 = 2(25/16) − 25/4 − 2 = 25/8 − 25/4 − 2 = 25/8 − 50/8 − 16/8 = −41/8.

So the turning point is (−5/4, −41/8).

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

Summary to learn

For any quadratic y = ax² + bx + c, the turning point’s x-coordinate is always given by x = −b/2a, a direct consequence of the parabola’s symmetry about its own vertex. Once that x-value is found, substituting it back into the original equation gives the matching y-coordinate — together, the two steps pin down the turning point exactly.

A rocket is launched vertically from the surface of the Earth. As it leaves the launch pad, the total mass of the rocket and its contents is m. The gravitational field strength at the Earth’s surface is g. The rocket motor provides an upward vertical thrust T to the rocket.
What is the initial vertical acceleration of the rocket as it leaves the launch pad?

  • AT/m − g
  • Bmg
  • CT/m
  • DT/m − mg
  • ET − mg
Correct answer: A T/m − g

Full explanation

Two forces act on the rocket: the upward thrust T and the downward weight mg. By Newton’s second law, net force = mass × acceleration, so acceleration = net force / m = (T − mg)/m = T/m − g.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Summary to learn

Newton’s second law (F = ma) applies to a rocket at launch by combining every force acting on it: the engine’s upward thrust and the rocket’s own downward weight (mass × gravitational field strength). Dividing the net force by the mass gives the acceleration, so the initial acceleration works out to (thrust − weight)/mass, which splits apart algebraically into T/m − g.

Given that 82x+3 × 1/43x = 2x+3, what is the value of x?

  • A0
  • B3
  • C6
  • D1/2
  • E3/2
Correct answer: C 6

Full explanation

Express every term as a power of 2: 8 = 2³, so 82x+3 = 23(2x+3) = 26x+9. Also 4 = 2², so 43x = 26x, meaning 1/43x = 2−6x.

The left side becomes 26x+9 × 2−6x = 26x+9−6x = 2⁹.

Setting exponents equal (since the bases match): 9 = x + 3, so x = 6.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

Summary to learn

Equations that mix different number bases raised to powers (such as 8 and 4, both themselves powers of 2) are solved by rewriting every term with one common base first, then combining exponents using the standard index rules (multiplying same-base powers adds their exponents, and 1/xn = x-n). Once both sides of the equation share an identical base, the exponents themselves must be equal, turning what looked like a hard exponential equation into ordinary linear algebra.

39 male students and 36 female students were asked how many meals they had eaten in the school cafeteria during the first week of term. The results are shown in the table:
Mean number of meals eaten — male: 2, female: x, all students: 3⅓.
What is the value of x?

  • A4½
  • B4²⁄₅
  • C20³⁄₅
  • D4²⁄₃
  • E3⁴⁄₅
Correct answer: A 4½

Full explanation

The overall mean of a combined group is the weighted average of the two sub-groups’ means, weighted by their sizes: (39 × 2 + 36 × x) / (39 + 36) = 3⅓ = 16/5.

Total students = 39 + 36 = 75. So 78 + 36x = 75 × 16/5 = 240.

36x = 240 − 78 = 162, so x = 162/36 = 4.5 = 4½.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Summary to learn

When two sub-groups of different sizes are combined, the overall mean is not simply the average of the two group means — it’s a weighted average, with each group’s mean weighted by how many members it has: overall mean = (n1x1 + n2x2) / (n1 + n2), which is really just “total of all individual values” divided by “total count,” rearranged.

A beaker contains 1000 g of a liquid that is stirred at its boiling point. A 100 W electric heater is completely immersed in the liquid. The heater provides the liquid with thermal energy, and 200 g of the liquid changes to vapour in 1600 s.
What is the specific latent heat of evaporation of the liquid? [Assume that no thermal energy is transferred to or from the surroundings, and no vapour condenses.]

  • A12.5 J/g
  • B160 J/g
  • C3200 J/g
  • D800 J/g
  • E16 000 J/g
Correct answer: D 800 J/g

Full explanation

Total thermal energy supplied = power × time = 100 W × 1600 s = 160 000 J.

This energy converts 200 g of liquid to vapour. Specific latent heat of evaporation L = energy / mass = 160 000 J / 200 g = 800 J/g.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Summary to learn

The specific latent heat of vaporisation is the energy needed to convert one unit mass of a liquid into vapour without any change in temperature, calculated as energy supplied ÷ mass converted. Since a heater’s power rating (in watts) is energy delivered per second, the total energy it supplies over any period is simply power × time — a relationship that comes up throughout thermal physics questions like this one.

The diagram represents a concave mirror, where F is the principal focus and f is the focal length (a mirror with principal axis, F marked at distance f from the mirror’s vertex).
The mirror is used to produce an image of an object. Which of the following statements are correct? [Assume the mirror is parabolic.]
1. Incident rays travelling parallel to the principal axis always pass through F after reflection.
2. Incident rays passing through F always travel parallel to the principal axis after reflection.
3. The image formed is always inverted.
4. The image formed is always real.
5. The image formed is always larger than the object.

  • A1 and 3 only
  • B3, 4 and 5 only
  • C2 and 4 only
  • D1 and 2 only
  • E1, 3 and 4 only
Correct answer: D 1 and 2 only

Full explanation

Statements 1 and 2 describe the two standard reflection properties that define the principal focus of a parabolic concave mirror: rays parallel to the axis reflect through F (statement 1), and by the reversibility of light, rays through F reflect out parallel to the axis (statement 2). Both are always true, by definition of the focus.

Statements 3, 4 and 5 are not always true: a concave mirror can produce an upright, virtual, magnified image when the object is placed between the mirror and its focal point (e.g. as in a shaving/makeup mirror), so the image is not always inverted, not always real, and not always larger than the object.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Summary to learn

A parabolic concave mirror is defined by two linked reflection properties that hold true no matter where the object is placed: any ray travelling parallel to the principal axis reflects through the focal point F, and by the reversibility of light, any ray passing through F reflects back out parallel to the axis. What isn’t always true is the type of image produced — only when the object sits beyond F is the image real, inverted, and possibly magnified; an object placed between the mirror and F instead produces a virtual, upright, magnified image, exactly as in a shaving or makeup mirror.

A boat crosses a river that has straight, parallel sides. In still water, the boat has a maximum speed of 4.0 m/s at maximum power. The boat is aimed at a point directly across the river from its starting point. The river flows at a constant speed of 3.0 m/s parallel to its sides.
What is the speed of the boat as measured by a person stationary on the bank, and what is the angle at which the boat travels, measured from a line at 90° to the bank? [The boat travels at maximum power throughout its journey.]

  • Aspeed of boat = 5.0 m/s; angle = cos−1(4.0/5.0)
  • Bspeed of boat = 7.0 m/s; angle = cos−1(3.0/7.0)
  • Cspeed of boat = 7.0 m/s; angle = cos−1(4.0/7.0)
  • Dspeed of boat = 5.0 m/s; angle = cos−1(3.0/5.0)
  • Espeed of boat = 5.0 m/s; angle = cos−1(3.0/4.0)
Correct answer: A speed of boat = 5.0 m/s; angle = cos−1(4.0/5.0)

Full explanation

The boat’s own velocity (4.0 m/s, directly across the river) and the river’s flow velocity (3.0 m/s, parallel to the banks) are perpendicular, so they combine as vectors at right angles.

The resultant (ground) speed is found with Pythagoras’ theorem: √(4.0² + 3.0²) = √(16 + 9) = √25 = 5.0 m/s.

The angle θ from the line at 90° to the bank (i.e. from the boat’s own heading direction) satisfies cosθ = adjacent/hypotenuse = 4.0/5.0, so θ = cos−1(4.0/5.0).

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Summary to learn

When a boat’s own velocity and a river current’s velocity act at right angles to each other, the resultant velocity relative to a stationary observer on the bank is found by vector addition: its magnitude comes from Pythagoras’ theorem (√(boat speed² + current speed²)), and its direction is given by the angle whose cosine relates the boat’s own heading speed to that resultant. This is the standard “boat crossing a river” vector problem that reappears throughout physics in slightly different costumes — planes in crosswinds, swimmers in currents.

Frequently Asked Questions

Right here — every question from the IMAT 2020 exam (General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics) is solved and explained on this page, for free, with no sign-up required.

Yes. Every calculation, chemical and biological fact was independently re-derived and checked by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team before publishing.

The IMAT is a single 100-minute test made up of General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics questions. Correct answers score +1.5, unanswered questions score 0, and incorrect answers score −0.4 (the exact weighting has varied slightly by year — always check the official rules for the year you are sitting).

The overall syllabus (General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Maths) has stayed broadly the same, but the exact number of questions, section weighting and question style have changed over the years — this 2020 paper is a great way to build core knowledge, but always pair it with recent past papers to get used to the current format.

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