IMAT 2018 Worked Solution

Correct answer: E

According to the count of total seats after the election (103,167 and 90), the suitable pie chart is chart E.

Correct answer: A. The number of species of insects that were endangered was almost equal to the number of species of fish that were endangered over the three-year period.

Option A: Correct. The Fish and Insects sectors have the most similar number of endangered species.

Option B: Incorrect. The Mammals sector experienced an increase in endangered species in 2001.

Option C: Incorrect. There was a decreasing trend in the number of endangered reptile species.

Option D: Incorrect. The number of endangered reptile species is about 225, while that of Birds is around 1200. The difference is not fourfold.

Option E: Incorrect. Amphibians experienced the greatest increase in the number of endangered species over the three years.

B. Restaurants should think carefully about what cutlery they use.

The passage explains how the taste perception of food changes based on the cutlery used (e.g., small spoons, black spoons, heavy knives). This implies that cutlery choice influences customer experience, which could give restaurants a competitive advantage.

Option A : Incorrect. The passage suggests other factors, like cutlery, influence perception.

Option B: This is a correct conclusion that can be drawn from the passage.

Option C: Incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention food presentation at all.

Option D: Incorrect. The research focuses on unconscious taste perception, not conscious attention to cutlery.

Option E: Incorrect. The study doesn’t compare cutlery importance versus food quality.

D. Video gaming is better for children’s health than watching television.

Option A: Incorrect. This is too specific and not stated in the passage. The study only says blood pressure was higher with TV, not that gaming actively reduces it.

Option B: Incorrect. This is an assumption, not a conclusion. The passage suggests passive screen time (like TV) doesn’t engage the mind, but it’s not the main message.

Option C: Incorrect. This is a supporting point used to explain why gaming might be healthier, not the main conclusion.

Option D: Correct. This is the main conclusion of the argument. The entire passage builds toward supporting this idea using calorie burning, blood pressure, and mental engagement as evidence.

Option E: Incorrect. This is another piece of supporting evidence, not the main point. It helps build the argument that video gaming is healthier.

Correct answer: E. £16.5

One package of crisps for 5 days a week for 4 weeks (for 6 children)
For triplet, one pack each a day would be 60 packages for 4 weeks.
For twin ; one pack each a day would be 40 packs for 4 weeks.
For Eldest ; 20 packs for 4 weeks.
Minimal cost for 60 packs = 12.5 (for 36) + 8.5 (for 24) = 21
Minimal cost for 40 packs = 12.5 (for 36) + 2 (for 4) = 14.5
Minimal cost for 20 packs = 4.5 (for 12) + 2.5 (for 6) + 1 (for 2) = 8
Total minimal cost for 120 packs is 43.5
Maximum cost for 120 packs is 60 (0.5 x 120)
Thus, money saved for buying combinations is 16.5 (60 - 43.5).

Correct Answer: A. Brain size and the ability to perform complex tasks are not necessarily related.

The author questions the importance of relative brain size by pointing out that animals like hummingbirds can do complex tasks with small brains, suggesting that a big brain isn't always needed for complexity.
Option A: Correct. This conclusion is supported by the passage.

Option B: Incorrect. This is too specific and not stated. The passage only uses the hummingbird as an example to challenge the idea that a big brain equals complexity.

Option C: Incorrect. The passage only says dolphins have larger brains relative to body size, but intelligence isn't discussed or concluded.

Option D: Incorrect. The passage uses a computer as a metaphor, but doesn’t claim there's no difference.

Option E: Incorrect. The passage mainly questions the idea of the importance of brain size, not its relation between brain size and body size.

Correct Answer: E. To reduce the number of deaths caused by excessive speed, car manufacturers should incorporate speed limiters in vehicles.

In this passage, the core principle is that when people cannot or do not make healthy choices themselves, companies contributing to the problem should take responsibility. We have to look for an option that follows the same logic. Eliminate options that shift the responsibility to the government or the individual.

Option A: This is government intervention, not manufacturer responsibility. It’s a different principle than the one in the argument.

Option B: Again, this is a government policy, not an example of manufacturers taking responsibility.

Option C: This is about user safety through information, but not because users are irresponsible. It lacks the key idea of producers stepping in when users can’t be trusted.

Option D: This assumes consumers will make better choices if better informed — it puts the responsibility on individuals, not on manufacturers, which contradicts the principle.

Option E: This follows the same principle: people (drivers) may not act responsibly (drive safely), so manufacturers should step in and implement a safety feature.

Correct Answer: A. Five annual vaccinations are necessary to protect a badger fully against bovine TB.

First, check the conclusion: The only way to stop bovine TB spreading is to kill badgers.
Several facts are given to support this conclusion. Something that strengthens these premises would strengthen the argument.

Option A: This strengthens the argument because it highlights a major weakness of vaccination — it’s slow and impractical for quick action. This supports the idea that killing badgers is the only viable short-term solution.

Option B: This actually weakens the argument. If TB affects relatively few cows, then drastic action like killing badgers seems less justified.

Option C: This weakens the argument because it questions the effectiveness of killing badgers.

Option D: This may undermine the argument by making vaccination seem more cost-effective, even if it's slower.

Option E: This weakens the argument by raising ethical and welfare concerns, making the practice of killing badgers less acceptable.

Correct Answer: D

To answer this question, we must check the direction: clockwise or anticlockwise.

Option A: In the given diagram, P-B-G goes in an anti-clockwise direction. So, it is the same direction as the image in the option.

Option B: In the given diagram, R-G-B goes in an anticlockwise direction, the same direction as the image in the option.

Option C: R-P-G goes in an anticlockwise direction, the same direction as the image in the option.

Option D: R-P-G goes in an anticlockwise direction, while the image in the option goes in a clockwise direction. Thus, this is not a possible view of the tetrahedron when looking down.

Option E: B-R-P goes in a clockwise direction, the same direction as the image in the option.

Correct answer: C. You want a large, powerful car that is fuel-efficient. Large, powerful cars are never fuel-efficient, so you will have to spend more on fuel if you want a large, powerful car.

The argument’s structure is desire vs reality structure, ending with a necessary adjustment (you must spend more).

Option A: This ends with "adjust expectations", not "spend more" or make a sacrifice. Close, but slightly different conclusion structure.

Option B: This is about contradictory preferences and choosing something else. Different structure.

Option C: Same structure. Desire is a large, powerful, fuel-efficient car. But in reality, these cars are never fuel-efficient. Thus, you’ll need to spend more (on fuel) to get what you want.

Option D: This is about competition, not an inherent cost barrier. Different reasoning.

Option E: This has no conflict or constraint, and no forced adjustment. Very different logic.

Correct Answer: A. There may be other reasons for the Icelanders’ health and longevity.

The conclusion of the given passage is that if we want to be healthy and live long lives, we should adopt the Icelandic diet. The argument assumes that diet is the only or primary reason for their health and long life. It ignores other possible contributing factors.

Option A: This directly points out the flaw in the logic — the oversimplified cause-and-effect assumption between diet and life expectancy.

Option B: Irrelevant — this is about preference, not about the logic of the argument.

Option C: Practical concern, but not a logical flaw in the argument itself.

Option D: Again, practical feasibility, not a critique of the reasoning.

Option E: This is about applicability, not the logical validity of the claim.

Correct Answer: E. It assumes that a higher number of dentists causes lower obesity rates.

Observation: Areas with more dentists per person have lower obesity rates than similar neighboring areas.

Conclusion: Public health authorities should invest more in dental care to fight obesity.

Assumption: Dentists somehow help cause lower obesity rates, so increasing dentists will reduce obesity.

Flaw in the reasoning: the relationship between the number of dentists and obesity rates is a correlation, not proof of causation.

Option A: Irrelevant. The argument is entirely about the USA.

Option B: That’s not the logical flaw — the argument already starts with that premise.

Option C: A practical concern, not a logical flaw in the reasoning.

Option D: True, but doesn’t address the flaw of assuming causation from correlation.

Option E: Correct. This directly addresses the causation-correlation fallacy, which is the core flaw in the argument.

Correct Answer: A) 7 minutes

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Correct Answer: B. Synthetic resin glue can only be used to glue wood materials together.

Option A: According to the table, to bond acrylic and polystyrene, PVA glue or latex glue can be used, not cyanoacrylate. Thus, this option is false.

Option B: It is true that synthetic resin glue is only used for bonding wood materials together (plywood and balsa wood, or) 2 plywood)

Option C: Incorrect. Balsa wood can also be used to bond cards with another material.

Option D: Incorrect. The only materials that can be used 3 types of glue to bond are cards and acrylic.

Option E: Incorrect. Polystyrene and card can be bonded with PVA glue, not rubber contact glue.

Correct Answer: D) $39

Correct Answer: C) A ban on deepwater drilling would cause oil prices to rise, which would affect poor people the most.

In the given paragraph, the conclusion is that Deepwater drilling should be banned until regulations are proven effective and companies are shown to be operating safely. And the main supporting reason is that it destroyed the livelihoods of the poor. There are also other environmental and social damages.

Option A: This doesn’t weaken the argument. In fact, it might strengthen it by showing the risks were ignored.

Option B: Compensation after damage doesn’t reduce the risk of future disasters. So it doesn’t challenge the call for a ban.

Option C: This introduces a new concern that challenges the main concern about the poor people. This effectively weakens the argument by challenging the premise.

Option D: The ban is not all about due to safety.

Option E: This supports moving away from oil, which might even support the ban.

Correct Answer: A) 23

Correct Answer: A) 160 miles

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Correct Answer: E

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Correct Answer: A) All computer-based learning includes internet use

The conclusion is that to be cautious about incorporating computer-based learning into all aspects of education. And the reason is that internet addiction is about to be classified as a psychiatric disorder. Assumption is a fact that relates reason and the conclusion without expressing it explicitly. So, we can say that the link is between computer-based learning and internet addiction.

Option A: This correctly describes the link between the conclusion and the supporting statement or reason. Without this assumption, the conclusion does not make sense.

Option B: The passage is not about the link between students’ disciplined use of the internet and computer-based learning. So, irrelevant.

Option C: This is more like a conclusion, not an assumption.

Option D: The passage never discusses cures. Irreverent.

Option E: The argument doesn’t claim this. It just points to excessive internet use as a cause, not the only one.

Correct Answer: A. Claudius Ptolemy.

Option A: The Almagest is a famous astronomical and mathematical work written in the 2nd century AD by Claudius Ptolemy, a Greco-Roman astronomer, mathematician, and geographer.

Option B: Known for mathematics and the Pythagorean theorem, lived much earlier.

Option C: Proposed elliptical orbits and supported the heliocentric model.

Option D: Proposed the heliocentric model (Sun at the center).

Option E: Philosopher who supported the geocentric view but did not write the Almagest.

Correct Answer: B. Denmark – De Telegraaf

Option A: Correct. Le Monde is a major French national newspaper.

Option B: Incorrect. De Telegraaf is Dutch, not Danish. It’s a national newspaper of the Netherlands, not Denmark.

Option C: Correct. The Times is a well-known British national newspaper.

Option D: Correct. It’s a major national newspaper in Germany, based in Munich.

Option E: Correct. Nový Čas is a popular daily newspaper in Slovakia.

Correct Answer: B) 1 and 3 only

During exercise, for energy, cellular respiration is carried out first, producing Carbon dioxide (acidic) and water. Then, if the energy requirement becomes higher and oxygen becomes depleted, lactic acid fermentation takes place, producing lactic acid (also acidic).

As a result, the pH in the muscle decreases (acidic) and more carbon dioxides are carried in the blood, leading to a decrease in blood pH as well (acidic).

Since oxygen demand is high in active tissues like muscles during exercise, the body adapts by dilating the blood vessels to transport more blood to these areas.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

Correct Answer: B) primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary

The key fact is that the protease is composed of 2 chains. This means that the protein is in its quaternary structure form. The shape of the active site is controlled, starting from the primary structure (its amino acid sequence) to the quaternary.

Correct answer: E) 3 only

Siblings have different phenotypes because different genotypes are inherited from the parents. The difference in genotype could be due to
1. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes in each gamete during prophase I of meiosis
2. Random alignment of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I
3. Random fertilization of a sperm and an egg
4. Mutations (rarely)

Thus, among the given statements, only statement 3 is correct.

1 is wrong because random fertilization should occur before forming a zygote.
2 is wrong because crossing over occurs in each gamete (sperm or egg), not between sperm and egg.

Correct Answer: A) anaphase in Meiosis I

Identify the key points given :

1) pairs of chromosomes separated (division of homologous chromosomes: Meiosis I)
2) chromosomes separated (anaphase)

Thus, the phase is the anaphase of Meiosis I.

Correct Answer: D. RPSQ

This is a gene mapping question. To solve this, map the genes with highest COV first. And then, order the rest accordingly.

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Correct Answer: B) The atria of the heart will be filling.

When the pressure in the ventricles of the heart is at its highest, it means that the ventricles are in systole, and if the pressure is higher than that in efferent arteries, the semilunar valves open and blood flows into the aorta and pulmonary arteries. Meanwhile, AV valves are closed, and atria are relaxed, accepting blood flow from the big veins.

Option A: Incorrect. The semi-lunar valves open at the highest pressure point.

Option B: Correct statement. Atria fills during this period and gets ready for the next cardiac cycle.

Option C: Incorrect. Ventricles contract during the given period, and it means that the electrical activity is now at the Purkinje fibers, not at the AV node.

Option D: Incorrect. The heart is in the ventricular systole.

Option E: Incorrect. The AV valves are closed.

Correct Answer: B) 1, 2, and 3

The question is about the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template. So, substrates for this enzyme are 4 different nucleotides which contain adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine as bases.
It is mentioned about an inhibitor of this enzyme, which is structurally similar to the nucleotides (competitive inhibition) and thus, binds to the active site, competing with the substrates and hindering DNA synthesis.

3 statements about the inhibitor molecules are given

1. This statement is correct. The competitive inhibitor should be similar to the substrates for the enzyme.

2. Correct statement. The enzyme mainly works by helping in the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the nucleotides. So, inhibitors do their job by preventing this bond formation.

3. This is also a correct statement. Reverse transcriptase enzymes not functioning well means that the viral genome will not be able to incorporate into the host genome and use the host’s cellular machinery to synthesize new viruses.

Thus, the correct statements are 1, 2, and 3.

Correct Answer: E) 112 H bonds present and 98 phosphodiester bonds present

Given: double-stranded DNA, contains 100 nucleotides, 38 of which contain thymine.

Due to complementary base pairing in which A pairs with T and G pairs with C, if the dsDNA contains 38 thymines, there would be 38 adenines (total 76). The rest contains guanine and cytosine in equal ratio. So, 12 guanine and 12 cytosine.

Between thymine and adenine, 2 hydrogen bonds are formed. Thus, there would be 76 hydrogen bonds in total (38 x 2).

Between guanine and cytosine, 3 hydrogen bonds are formed. Thus, there would be 36 hydrogen bonds in total (12x3).

Total hydrogen bonds = 76 + 36 = 112

Since it is double-stranded DNA, each strand would contain 50 nucleotides, with 49 phosphodiester bonds in between, making up a total of 98 phosphodiester bonds.

Correct Answer: A) 2 and 4 only

A sex-linked dominant condition is passed down through a family.

4 statements are given.

1. If Z is a boy (XY), he inherits the Y allele from his father and the X allele from his mother. Therefore, he must have inherited the dominant allele from his mother, not his father.

2. If Z is a boy (XY), he inherits the Y allele from his father and the X allele from his mother. So, one of the X chromosomes of the mother is defective, and she must have inherited this X from one of her parents. Thus, this statement is correct.

3. Z is a girl (XX). Since the condition is caused by a dominant allele, one allele is sufficient to express the condition. So, neither of her parents do not needs to have the allele.

4. Z is a boy (XY), and he has the condition, so his X allele is a diseased allele. If he has daughters (XX), he has to contribute his defective X gene to his daughters, and the daughters will have the condition. Thus, this statement is correct.

Correct Answer: D) Trachea

The alveolus is composed of just squamous epithelium and some connective tissue.

The oviduct is composed of ciliated columnar epithelium and some connective tissue.

Bowman’s capsule is composed of squamous epithelium.

The trachea is composed of ciliated columnar epithelium and cartilage.

Capillaries are composed of squamous epithelium.

Thus, the structure that is made up of at least TWO of the given tissues is the trachea.

Correct Answer: C) 2 only

This question is about cystic fibrosis treatment by introducing non-mutated alleles to the lung cells. But this treatment gives only short-term relief. 3 reasons are given.

Reason 1: Genes are the basic units of heredity and it carry the instructions for life. Thus, they are properly contained in the nucleus to resist environmental stresses. So, it is incorrect that genes are unstable and break down over time in the cell.

Reason 2: This is a proper reason for the treatment prognosis.

Reason 3: Since cystic fibrosis is also caused by a recessive autosomal allele, dominance/ recessiveness isn’t the limiting factor here. One copy of the functional gene is enough to produce normal protein function. Thus, this does not explain why the treatment is short-lived.

Correct Answer: D) 2 only

The gallbladder does not make anything. It stores the bile produced by the liver. So, we can exclude this option.

The pancreas produces bicarbonate ions to raise the pH of the contents in the intestine to create a proper environment for the enzymes to work. Small intestinal and pancreatic enzymes work best in an alkaline environment.

The stomach produces gastric juice, which contains HCl (pH 2) and pepsin. Therefore, the pH is very low in the stomach.

Thus, the structure that makes a solution that can raise the pH is the Pancreas.

Correct Answer: B) It is photosynthetic but has some cells that only respire.

An organism, in bright sunlight, has the following features:

-Consists of some cells with organelles that contain grana. (This organelle is a chloroplast)

-All cells contain molecules of ATP, ADP, and NAD.

-Some cells release carbon dioxide by diffusion all the time.

Since it contains chloroplasts (a membrane-bound organelle), the cell must be an eukaryotic cell, and it carries out photosynthesis.

Analysis of the options
Option A: Incorrect. The given facts state that some contain chloroplasts and that some cells release carbon dioxide by diffusion all the time (cellular respiration process: mitochondria). Since it specifies “some”, not all cells contain both chloroplasts and mitochondria.

Option B: This option is correct.

Option C: Incorrect. This option is contradicted by the fact that some cells release carbon dioxide by diffusion all the time due to cellular respiration, which uses oxygen.

Option D: Incorrect. Not all cells contain chloroplasts; therefore, not all plant cells carry out photosynthesis.

Option E: Incorrect. The cell contains membrane-bound organelles, which is a characteristic of a eukaryotic cell, not a prokaryote.

Correct Answer: E) 1, 2, and 3 only

1. Ribosomes are composed of rRNA and protein subunits. Thus, ribosomes contain peptide bonds.

2. Antibodies are proteins, so they also contain peptide bonds.

3. Cilia are composed of microtubules, which are made of the protein tubulin. Therefore, they also contain peptide bonds.

4.Cholesterol is a lipid, not a protein,so it does not contain peptide bonds.

Ribosomes, antibodies, and cilia contain peptide bonds.

Correct Answer: A) 1 and 2 only

B lymphocytes are involved in the adaptive immune response, primarily by producing antibodies that target and neutralize pathogens. They also act as antigen-presenting cells to activate T cells.

When B lymphocytes are activated, they clone themselves through mitosis and produce antibodies via translation and transcription.

However, they do not engulf or digest bacteria – this function is carried out by phagocytes such as macrophages and neutrophils, not B lymphocytes.

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2, and 3

There are 2 different species of bacteria: V and W.

At first, both grow at the same rate in the same environment.

When the conditions are changed, the growth rate of species V increases. Three example causes are given, and in fact, all three causes could potentially explain the change in growth, as each organism has its own favourable conditions and there is no universal rule for what benefits every species.

Correct Answer: A) GCAACATTGGGT

Amino acid sequence: -1-2-3-4

tRNA sequence: GCA-ACA-UUG-GGU

mRNA sequence: CGU-UGU-AAC-CCA

Template DNA sequence: GCA-ACA-TTG-GGT

Correct Answer: A) 1,2, and 3

The question is about a neuron in a healthy human.

Statement 1: Correct. For example, acetylcholine is released at the nerve terminal via the process of exocytosis.

Statement 2: Correct. Every cell in the body contains the same genetic content and the same chromosomes. Differences in the type of cell arise due to differences in gene expression, not DNA content.

Statement 3: Correct. Neurons contain mitochondria, and circular DNA can be found within the mitochondria.

Correct Answer: A) –1, +1, +5, and +7 only

Correct Answer: B) bromine in liquid hexane

This is a solubility question, and the key idea is that “ like dissolves like”. Polar compounds will dissolve only in polar solvents, and nonpolar compounds in nonpolar solvents.

Option A: NaCl is a polar ionic compound, while cyclohexane is a nonpolar solvent. Thus, NaCl would not dissolve in cyclohexane.

Option B: Bromine is a nonpolar molecule, and hexane is also a nonpolar solvent. Since they have the same nature, they dissolve in each other.

Option C: Hydrogen is a nonpolar molecule, while water is a polar solvent. Therefore, hydrogen does not dissolve well in water.

Option D: Potassium bromide is a polar ionic compound, while tetrachloromethane is a nonpolar solvent. Compounds with different polarities do not dissolve in each other.

Option E: Silicon dioxide is a non-polar compound, and water is a polar solvent. Compounds with different polarities do not dissolve in each other.

Thus, among the given options, option B has the highest solubility.

Correct answer: A) C₆H₁₀

Correct Answer: C) ¹¹Na⁺ and ⁸O²⁻

¹⁹K⁺ has 18 electrons (19-1)
¹¹Na⁺ has 10 electrons (11-1)
⁸O⁻ has 9 electrons (8+1)
⁸O²⁻ has 10 electrons (8+2)
¹⁶S⁻ has 17 electrons (16+1)
Thus, ¹¹Na⁺ and ⁸O²⁻ has the same number and arrangement of electrons.

Correct Answer: B

Ionization energy is the minimum energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous atom.

Trend of ionization energy:

- Increases across the period from left to right
- Decreases down the group
- It is more difficult to remove an electron from a full octet electron shell or a nearly filled electron shell. (higher ionization energy)

The given choices contain elements from group 1 (Z = 11) , group 18 (Z = 10) and group 17 (Z = 9)
Group 1 elements are alkali metals, and they tend to have lower ionization energy than the others.
Group 18 elements are noble gases, and they possess octet electron shells and thus, they are very stable gases and usually have the highest ionization energies.

Group 17 elements are halogens. They are non-metals, and they usually have a high ionization energy but lower than that of noble gases.

Thus, the atom with the highest ionization energy is the noble gas: option B

Correct Answer: A) 3,3-dichloro-2,4-dimethylhexan-2-ol

IUPAC rules

1. Identify the longest straight chain of carbon atoms (6 carbon chain: write as stem)

2. Identify the functional group (there is a hydroxyl group at position 2: write as a suffix)

3. Identify the side chains or substituent groups (2 chlorine substituents at position 3 and one methyl at position 2 and one methyl at position 4: write as prefix)

So, the correct IUPAC name would be 3,3-dichloro-2,4-dimethylhexan-2-ol

Correct Answer: E) row 5

Correct Answer: D) 293 °C

Correct Answer: D. CH₃OH is the conjugate acid of CH₃O⁻

Correct Answer: B) 2 and 3 only

Temperature is a measure of kinetic energy. Thus, if a change increases temperature, it also increases the kinetic energy.

Statement 1: According to the ideal gas law equation, PV = nRT
At constant temperature and pressure, increasing the number of moles would require a decrease in temperature to maintain the equation, thereby decreasing the kinetic energy.

Statement 2: According to Gay-Lussac’s law, increasing the pressure (at constant volume and number of moles) increases the temperature of the gas, and as a result, the kinetic energy increases.

Statement 3: According to Charles’s law, increasing the volume (at constant pressure and number of moles) increases the temperature of the gas, thereby increasing the kinetic energy of the gas.

Thus, changes in cases 2 and 3 increase the total kinetic energy of the hydrogen gas molecules initially within the container.

Correct Answer: E) 1 only

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2 and 3

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According to Newton's Second Law:

Force(F)=mass(m) ×acceleration (a)

If force is constant, then acceleration is also constant. (The mass here is constant as well).

Now, according to the equation of motion: v=u+at
So, if acceleration is constant, velocity increases over time.

Hence, the correct answer is (B).