IMAT 2016 Worked Solution

Correct answer: C. 17

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Correct answer: E. 5

It is given that 9 operations can take place in any order at any time, and the product must be ready within 16 hours.

First, we will select the operations that take a total of 16 hours.

Operation A and H takes 16 hours in total — 1 worker

Operation E and G — 16 hours in total — 1 worker

Operation I and B- 13 hours in total — 1 worker

Operation D and F — 11 hours in total — 1 worker

Operation C — 8 hours — 1 worker

Thus, the minimum number of workers required to manufacture the product in the given time is 5.

Correct answer: A. 6

4 sides to be painted either red or blue.
- Same colour on all sides — RRRR, BBBB
- Alternating colors — RBRB
- 3 sides one color and 1 side different — RRRB, BBBR
- 2 Red and 2 Blue placed continuously - RRBB
Final total = 2 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 6 different tins

Correct answer: A. 26

In a skiing competition, competitors who fail to finish their first run are not allowed to make a second run. In the second round, skiers compete in the reverse order of their positions after the first round.

In the 1st round, Grace was the 8th skier. At the end of 1st round, she was in 6th position (2 failed).
In the 2nd round, she had to wait for 17 skiers (meaning she had at least 17 skiers behind her in the first round). It is given that a total of 3 skiers have failed the 1st round, and we already know two; one of the three must be from the skiers behind Grace in the first round. (So, the total skiers behind Grace becomes 18)

So, total number of competitors = 7 + 1 (Grace) + 18 = 26

Correct answer: B. Identifying an object by sight alone which had been touched but not seen previously is learned behaviour and not innate.

The passage describes children who had just gained sight through surgery. When asked to match a touched object to a visual one, they barely performed better than guessing right after surgery. However, their ability to do this improved within days.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Incorrect. The passage doesn’t discuss ethics or morality. It only describes the experiment and results, without any value judgment.

Option B: Correct. The children struggled at first (only slightly better than guesswork). But they got better within days — showing that this ability improves with experience.

Option C: Incorrect. This is the opposite of what the passage suggests. If it were innate, the children would have succeeded immediately after surgery.

Option D: Incorrect. The passage only discusses children.

Option E: Incorrect. Again, no adults were tested.

Correct Answer: B. 20 minutes

Both arrive at the depot at 1:00 pm.

Large van :

Starts loading at 8 am and returns at 1 pm (total 5 hours) — takes 2 and a half hours for 1 deli — so, the large van can do 2 delivery rounds in the morning.

Small van :

Takes 1 hour and 10 minutes for 1 deli route — within 5 hours, a small van can do 4 rounds of deli maximally, which takes 4 hours and 40 minutes. So, to be back at 1 pm, the small van can start loading 20 minutes later than the large van at 8:20 am.

Correct Answer: B. 432.5 kg

Key given fact: the quantities of other ingredients as a percentage of the weight of flour used.

The baker is preparing to make white bread with 250 kg of flour.

To make white bread,

Water - content equal to 54% of flour amount = 250 x 0.54 = 135 kg

Salt - content equal to 2% of flour amount = 250 x 0.02 = 5 kg

Fat - content equal to 17% of flour amount = 250 x 0.17 = 42.5 kg

Total weight of the mixture = 250kg + 135 kg + 5 kg + 42.5 kg = 432.5 kg

Correct Answer: B. £2.00

Key given fact: I want to have at least 20 g of protein in my sandwich and no more than 4 g of fat — wants to know the smallest amount needed to spend

There are 2 options that meet the criteria — Beef and Turkey.

The cheaper choice between these 2 is beef.
So, the smallest amount that she will need to pay is £2.00

Correct Answer: E. Acquiring a second or additional language is the same process as acquiring a first language.

The argument says:

First languages are acquired naturally (without formal grammar instruction). Therefore, studying grammar for second languages is a waste of time. All that is needed is exposure, just like for children learning their mother tongue.

We need to find a proper assumption that holds the whole argument together.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Irrelevant. The argument says grammar study is unnecessary, not that reading is required.

Option B: Opposite! If they were so different, you couldn’t assume the same acquisition process works for all.

Option C: May be true, but it’s not the assumption the argument depends on.
Option D: Again, not central to the claim. The focus is on exposure, not reading specifically.

Option E: Correct. The reasoning only makes sense if the author believes that learning a second language works the same way as learning a first language.

Correct answer: A

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Correct Answer: D. Children need to be allowed to play in order to develop their thinking skills.

Let’s break down the argument:

The argument starts with the fact that children need to play to develop thinking. And then, the reason comes — while playing, they explore consequences and possibilities, the same as adults do when thinking.
The last sentence given could be a confusing fact, but if we look at the paragraph overall, it is obvious that this passage is about the importance of playing in childhood, not about comparing playing and thinking.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Not mentioned or implied.

Option B: Possibly implied, but it’s a consequence, not the main conclusion.

Option C: Incorrect. The main idea is not about comparing playing and thinking.

Option D: This is the correct main conclusion.

Option E: Incorrect. Again, this paragraph is not about comparing playing and thinking.

Correct Answer: C. Science should not progress beyond what is natural.

The key sentence in the given paragraph is that “The big question for science should not be 'What's in it for us?' but 'Could this have happened naturally? “ And if the answer is “No”, we should not do it. So, the paragraph says there needs to be boundaries to the progress of biotechnology.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: This is about nature overriding us eventually — not part of the author’s reasoning.

Option B: Too extreme. The passage is cautionary but not catastrophist — it focuses on ethical limits, not certain doom.

Option C: Correct. This adheres to the paragraph saying to have boundaries.

Option D: This is a conclusion or recommendation, not a guiding principle.

Option E: This is a judgment within the argument, but it’s not the core principle.

Correct Answer: E.

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Correct Answer: D. In the 1960s and 1970s the USA had the highest percentage of smokers.

The argument claims that life expectancy in the USA has increased slower than in other rich countries. Smoking rate being constant, the argument blames obesity and lack of exercise as the cause. We need to find an option that weakens this reasoning.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Neutral. Doesn’t address why the USA is lagging.

Option B: Actually supports the argument (makes obesity more likely).

Option C: Irrelevant. The focus is on current adult life expectancy.

Option D: Correct. That undermines the argument’s conclusion that obesity and inactivity are the key reasons for slower life expectancy gains.

Option E: Might slightly weaken the uniqueness of fast food in the USA, But doesn’t explain why life expectancy in the USA is worse

Correct Answer: B. There may be factors other than badgers, such as the movement of cattle, which contribute to the spread of TB in cattle.

The argument says;

TB does pass between badgers and cattle (based on DNA evidence). Therefore, badger culling is justified to protect farmers and the food supply.

But — if other major sources of TB spread exist, like cattle movement, then the conclusion would become weaker.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Irrelevant to the logic of whether culling is effective or necessary.

Option B: Correct. It implies that culling badgers alone might not effectively reduce TB, and the conclusion — that culling is necessary and justified — becomes much weaker.

Option C: Incorrect. Supports the idea that culling is a more feasible solution, not a weakness.

Option D: Incorrect. Just reflects opinion, not a factual challenge to the effectiveness or necessity of culling.

Option E: Incorrect. Just reflects opinion, not a factual challenge to the effectiveness or necessity of culling.

Correct Answer: C. New York and Santiago

Correct Answer: C. There should be more 'ready to eat' healthy meals available.

The argument starts with the fact that childhood obesity is a known problem. Some blame it on children having money and access to unhealthy food. One suggested solution is to raise the prices of those foods. BUT that likely won’t work because convenience is a key factor in what parents choose. Therefore, the real solution is to make healthy foods just as convenient. This is the main point of the argument.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Incorrect. Mentioned early on, but not in the conclusion.

Option B: incorrect. Already mentioned and rejected in the argument as ineffective.

Option C: Correct. This reflects the main idea of the argument.

Option D: Incorrect. Background information, not the final point.

Option E: A starting premise, not the argument's conclusion

Correct Answer: B. The number of voluntary organ donors is small and not increasing.

The passage argues that:

The government should adopt an opt-out system for organ donation.

Because it would vastly increase the supply of transplantable organs.

And that would improve lives for people with long-term health problems.

So, to strengthen this argument, we want a statement that shows the current system isn’t working well, and that increased supply is badly needed.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Might actually weaken the case for automatic consent, as it highlights emotional costs.

Option B: This strengthens the argument. If voluntary donation is low and stagnant, then switching to an opt-out system seems even more necessary and justified.

Option C: Neutral or weakening — it casts doubt on how much "increase" in supply really helps.

Option D: Weakens the argument by pointing to resistance and ethical concerns.

Option E: Introduces uncertainty, which weakens confidence in the proposal’s effectiveness.

Correct Answer: E. Surveys of young women have suggested that the use of male models makes the typical model physique less desirable to attain

The passage argues that fashion models present an unrealistic and unattainable ideal that many women can’t relate to. Some designers now use male models to show these clothes. The author welcomes this as it highlights the disconnect between catwalk fashion and real-world women’s bodies.

To strengthen the argument, we have to look for an option that makes the conclusion more likely to be true by showing that it has a positive, measurable effect or that its assumptions are valid.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Suggests a marketing stunt, not a meaningful shift in values — weakens the argument.

Option B: Background info, not directly supporting the positive effect of using male models.

Option C: Supports part of the context, but not the main claim about why using male models is a good thing.

Option D: doesn’t show any positive social impact, so it’s not a strong point.

Option E: This strengthens the argument. It supports the idea that this trend helps reduce the negative effects of fashion imagery. → It shows that the move is not just symbolic, but has a real positive impact on body image.

Correct Answer: D. Directors of companies should encourage their employees to recycle more by visibly doing so themselves.

The main principle in the passage is: Influential individuals (like celebrities) should publicly support good causes because their actions can inspire others to do the same.

So, we’re looking for an example that follows the same structure:
- A person in a position of influence or visibility
- Publicly engaging in a positive or ethical action
- To encourage others to follow their lead

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Focuses on blind obedience to success, not about inspiring action through example.

Option B: Promotes inaction, which is opposite to the original principle.

Option C: It’s about individual contribution, not inspiring others through influence.

Option D: This exactly reflects the principle underlying the argument above.

Option E: Talks about the scale of responsibility, not about leading by example.

Correct Answer: C. Germany

NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) was founded on April 4, 1949. The 12 founding members were :
US, Canada, UK, France, Italy, Belgium, Netherlands, Luxembourg, Norway, Denmark, Iceland, Portugal.

Correct Answer: D. The Parthenon of Athens

The 7 Wonders of the Ancient World are :

The Great Pyramid of Giza (Egypt)
The Hanging Gardens of Babylon (Iraq — though existence is debated)
The Statue of Zeus at Olympia (Greece)
The Temple of Artemis at Ephesus (Turkey)
The Mausoleum at Halicarnassus (Turkey)
The Colossus of Rhodes (Greece)
The Lighthouse of Alexandria (Egypt)

Correct Answer: E. ribosome

Nucleolus: produces rRNA, and it is also the house of DNA since it is inside the nucleus.

Mitochondrion: contains both its own rRNA and circular DNA.

Chloroplast: contains both its own rRNA and circular DNA.

Smooth ER: Does not contain RNA or DNA

Ribosome: contains RNA but does not contain DNA.

Correct Answer: E. rows 6 and 7 only

An organism is heterozygous for two genes. 2 genes are on the same DNA molecule.

It could be E and R on one chromosome and e and r on another.
(or)
E and r on one chromosome and e and R on another.

Whatever the case is — at the end of a mitotic division, the exact same chromosomes will be in the daughter cell because this is mitosis (no crossing over, no random arrangement of homologous chromosomes)

So, both row 6 and row 7 could be the case.

Correct answer: C. row 1

Transcription is the synthesis of RNA using DNA as a template.

Translation is the synthesis of protein using mRNA as a template, and tRNA and rRNA serve as part of the machinery.

So, nucleic acid NOT directly involved in transcription is tRNA or rRNA.

Nucleic acid NOT directly involved in translation is DNA.

The correct row is row 1.

Correct Answer: A. row 4

In pure extracts of DNA molecules, there is pentose sugar, a phosphate group bound to the sugar through phosphodiester bonds, and one of 4 bases, which are adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. Since DNA is double-stranded, hydrogen bonds can also be found between the 2 strands.

In pure extracts of the tRNA molecule, there is a pentose sugar, a phosphate group bound to the sugar through phosphodiester bonds, and one of 4 bases, which are adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil. tRNA is in clover shape, which is formed through hydrogen bonds.

In both molecules, a pentose sugar, a phosphate group bound to sugar through phosphodiester bonds, 3 bases (A, C, G), and hydrogen bonds can be found.

Correct Answer: C. 1 and 2 only

Genetic drift: Genetic drift is the fluctuation of allele frequencies in a population, especially significant in small populations. It occurs by chance. So, this is a random process.

Mutations: Mutations occur due to errors in DNA replication or from external factors (radiation, chemicals), but the location and nature of the mutation are random. So, this can also be a random process.

Artificial selection: Artificial selection is intentional and directed by humans who select individuals with desired traits to reproduce. This is a non-random process because specific traits are chosen on purpose.

Therefore, only processes 1 and 2 can be random processes.

Correct Answer: E. Z → W → V → X → Y

Some steps involved in the production of transgenic plants.

1. Prepare the plasmid
2. Isolate the target gene
3. Mix the target gene with the plasmid and make copies
4. Identify the recombinant plasmid
5. Inject that recombinant plasmid into host plant cells

So, the correct order would be Z → W → V → X → Y

Correct Answer: A. E. coli → human red blood cell → onion epidermal cell

E coli is a prokaryote and a prokaryote has a size of around 1 µm

Human RBC is an animal eukaryotic cell, and eukaryotic cells have a size of around 10-100 µm
An onion cell is a plant eukaryotic cell, and plant cells are usually bigger than animal cells.

Therefore, the sequence of cells according to increasing size is

E. coli → human red blood cell → onion epidermal cell

Correct Answer: D. liver produces and then gall bladder stores

Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. The gall bladder is solely used to store the bile.

Thus, the correct option is option D.

Correct Answer: A. T T G C T

A A C G A
1 2 3 4 5
T T G C T (complementary)

Correct Answer: A. 1

Label number 1: Brain stem — Controls vital functions (e.g., breathing, heartbeat)

Label number 2: Pituitary gland — Regulates many other endocrine glands; essential for homeostasis and growth.

Label number 3: Cerebrum — it is responsible for memory, conscious thought, voluntary movement, learning, and personality.

Label number 4: Occipital lobe — It is dedicated entirely to vision – damage here can lead to partial or complete blindness, visual hallucinations, or misperceptions.

Label number 5: Cerebellum — Balance, coordination, fine motor skills

So, the structure that plays the major role in regulating the nervous control of heart rate is the brain stem.

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Correct Answer: C. 3

A dipeptide is mentioned. To hydrolyze this into 2 amino acids, a peptide bond (-CONH-) needs to be broken, which is the bond number 3 in the given structure.

Correct Answer: D. None of them

Respiratory enzymes are enzymes that help speed up the reaction during the cellular respiration process.

All the mentioned molecules are coenzymes, not enzymes.

Acetyl CoA is used during pyruvate oxidation, and FAD and NADH act as electron carriers.

Examples of enzymes include hexokinase, enolase, and pyruvate kinase.

Correct Answer: D. 1 and 3 only

In the testes of a healthy man, there are diploid cells that undergo meiosis to produce gametes.

Analysis of the given statements
Statement 1: True. Before meiosis begins, the diploid primary spermatocyte undergoes interphase, during which DNA replication occurs. So each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids → DNA content is doubled, but the cell is still diploid (2n).

Statement 2: False. After meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated → two cells are formed, each with half the number of chromosomes → haploid (n). Therefore, cells at the start of meiosis II are haploid, not diploid.

Statement 3: True. At the end of meiosis II, 4 daughter cells are produced, each with n number of chromosomes (total 4n). The original diploid cells have 2n number of chromosomes. So, it can be said that the total number of chromosomes produced by the end of meiosis II is double that of the original diploid cell.

Correct Answer: D. 2

In the given action potential diagram,

Phase 1: Resting membrane potential — Na⁺/K⁺ pump maintains the resting potential.

Phase 2: Depolarization and action potential — Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open

Phase 3: Repolarization — Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels inactivate, and Voltage-gated K⁺ channels open

Phase 4: Return to action potential — K⁺ channels close, Na⁺/K⁺ pump and leak channels restore baseline

Phase 5: Resting membrane potential

Therefore, the Na+ gates of the neuron open during phase 2, which is the depolarization and action potential phase.

Correct Answer: E. 0

You can always write a Punnett square for each cross, but it is recommended to memorize the typical phenotypic ratios of a dihybrid cross. When two heterozygous dihybrids (RrTt x RrTt) are crossed, the phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1. When a heterozygous dihybrid is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual (RrTt x rrtt), the resulting phenotypic ratio is 1:1:1:1.

In both cases, 4 different phenotypes can be observed. So, the difference between the number of phenotypes for 2 different crosses is 0. (4 - 4 = 0)

Correct Answer: C. S: granum; H: NADP; N: reduced

In photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes, which are organized into stacks called grana. The hydrogen carrier NADP⁺ is reduced to NADPH during these reactions.

So, the correct option is option C.

Correct Answer: B. row 1 only

Phases in mitosis are

Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase

During metaphase, chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate.

During telophase, separated sister chromatids are at opposite poles, and the nuclear envelope reforms.
The row that shows the correct processes occurring in Phase two and Phase four of mitosis is row 1 only.

Correct Answer: E. 1,2, and 3

In mitochondria, glucose (a carbohydrate monomer) is the main fuel for cellular respiration, providing reactants for the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.

In the Golgi apparatus, proteins produced by the rough ER are modified by the addition of carbohydrate tags (glycosylation) to direct them to their appropriate destinations.

In chloroplasts, light energy and water are used during photosynthesis to synthesize glucose.

Therefore, carbohydrates play a relevant role in all of the mentioned organelles.

Correct Answer: B. 1 only

Usually, strong acids form a weak conjugate base and weak acids form a strong conjugate base. This is the same case for bases.

1. Na₂CO₃

This is a salt formed from the reaction of a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (H₂CO₃). The Na⁺ ion, being the conjugate of a strong base, is a very weak acid and does not contribute significantly to the overall pH. On the other hand, the CO₃²⁻ ion is the conjugate base of a weak acid and is therefore relatively strong. It reacts with water to produce OH⁻ ions, making the solution alkaline.

2. NaCl

This is a salt formed from the reaction of a strong base (NaOH) and a strong acid (HCl). Both the Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions are conjugates of strong species, so they are extremely weak and do not hydrolyze in water. Thus, the pH of the solution remains neutral (around 7).

3. NaHSO₄

This salt comes from a strong acid (H₂SO₄) and a strong base (NaOH). Although both reactants are strong, H₂SO₄ is diprotic. After donating its first proton, the remaining HSO₄⁻ ion still has the potential to donate another proton. When NaHSO₄ dissolves in water, Na⁺ does not react with water, but HSO₄⁻ can donate a proton, making the solution acidic.

Therefore, only Na₂CO₃ forms an alkaline solution.

Correct Answer: D. Pb²⁺(aq) + 2I⁻(aq) → PbI₂(s)

Lead(II) nitrate → contains Pb²⁺ (aq)
Potassium iodide → contains I⁻ (aq)

They form:

Potassium nitrate (soluble)
Lead(II) iodide (PbI₂) → yellow precipitate
We only include species that change state (i.e., form a solid or gas). Here, Pb²⁺ and I⁻ form a precipitate.

So, the correct ionic equation is

Pb²⁺(aq) + 2I⁻(aq) → PbI₂(s)

Correct answer: A. 1, 3, and 4 only

Given molecule : CH₂=CH–CH₂–CH₂–CO–CH₂–CHO

CH₂=CH– → This is a C=C double bond (Alkene group)

– CO – → a ketone group

–CHO → an aldehyde group

There is no -OH (hydroxyl) group.

So, functional groups 1, 3, and 4 are present.

Correct Answer: E. 1, 2, and 4 only

Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, and 3 only

CH₃OH(l) + CH₃COOH(l) ⇌ CH₃COOCH₃(l) + H₂O(l)
ΔH = –8.5 kJ mol⁻¹ (exothermic)

The question ask the option that increase the amount of CH₃OH at equilibrium. That means we want the equilibrium to shift to the left (toward methanol).

Analysis of the given choices
1. Adding more water to the mixture
Water is a product, and adding a product shifts the equilibrium to the left.

2.raising the temperature of the mixture
The reaction is exothermic and increasing temperature favors the endothermic (reverse) reaction. So, this would shift the equilibrium to the left, too.

3. Adding sodium hydroxide to the mixture
NaOH is a strong base and will react with ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH), forming CH₃COO⁻ and H₂O. This removes ethanoic acid, a reactant, causing the equilibrium to shift to the left.

4.Adding a catalyst to the mixture
A catalyst increases the rate of reaching equilibrium. It does not affect the position of equilibrium.

Therefore, options 1, 2 and 3 increase the amount of CH₃OH at equilibrium.

Correct Answer: A. CO₂, C₃H₈, CH₃CHO

This is about boiling/melting points, or more broadly, intermolecular forces — the stronger the intermolecular forces, the higher the boiling point, so it becomes a gas later as temperature rises.

CO₂ is a linear, non-polar molecule. It has weak van der Waals forces as the only intermolecular force.

C₃H₈ is a nonpolar alkane. It has a van der Waals force as an intermolecular force, but stronger than CO₂ due to the larger molecular surface.

CH₃CHO is a polar molecule and has dipole-dipole forces due to the polar carbonyl group. So, it will become gas last.

So, the trend is CO₂, C₃H₈, CH₃CHO.

Correct Answer: E. 2.4

Given :

Concentration of LiOH = 0.10 mol/L

We are asked to find the concentration in g/L

Molar mass of LiOH = 7.0 + 16.0 + 1.0 = 24.0 g/mol

Concentration in g/L = mol/L × molar mass = 0.10×24.0 = 2.4 g/L

Correct Answer: E. 6

The question asks for the structural isomers of C₄H₈F₂. Since the molecule contains only single bonds, they are rotatable. So, we only count distinct structures and ignore duplicates due to symmetry or flipping the chain.

A document has been prepared to include the images and diagrams related to the questions, placed directly below the worked solutions for clarity and reference.

Correct Answer: D. p = 24 n = 28 e = 21

Number of protons, p = 24
Number of neutrons, n = 52 - 24 = 28
Number of electrons, e = 24 - 3 = 21

Correct Answer: B. 1 and 2 only

1. BeCl₂
Central atom: Be (2 valence electrons)
Each Cl forms a single bond with Be → 2 bonding pairs, no lone pairs.
Electron geometry: linear
Bond angle: 180°

2. C₂H₂
Structure: H–C≡C–H
Each carbon is sp-hybridized: 2 electron regions (one triple bond + one single bond)
Linear geometry around each C
Bond angle: 180°

3. CCl₄
Central atom: C
4 bonding pairs (C–Cl bonds), no lone pairs
Electron geometry: tetrahedral
Bond angle: 109.5°

Therefore, BeCl₂ and C₂H₂ contain bond angles of 180°.

Correct Answer: B. 1 and 5

Joule (J) is the unit of energy or work, and meter (m) is the unit of distance.
Therefore, joules per metre (J/m) represent energy per unit distance.

Let’s analyse the options:
A. Kinetic Energy is a form of energy, so the unit is joules.
B. Momentum is the product of mass and velocity, so its unit is kilogram – meter per second (kg m/s).
C. Power is work done upon time taken, so its unit is Joule per seconds (J/s) or Watts (W).
D. Work done is force times distance (W = F.d) and its unit is Joules (J).
E. Force is work per unit distance (F = W/d), so its unit is Joule per meter (J/m).

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Let’s analyse each of the statements:
a. Statement 1: Correct. As the ball rises, its speed decreases (so it loses kinetic energy) and its height increases (so it gains potential energy).
b. Statement 2: Incorrect. The acceleration is constant (10 m/s² downward) due to gravity.
c. Statement 3: Incorrect. The gravitational force always acts downward, even at maximum height.

So, only the statement 1 is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).