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IMAT 2015 Worked Solution & Answers | LOCOMOTIVE
IMAT 2015 · Worked Solution

IMAT 2015 Worked Solution

All 60 questions, solved and explained — General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics. Verified line by line by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team.

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General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning

Current affairs, history, culture, logical and critical-thinking problems · 22 questions
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Although the Earth supports life, it has a mysterious carbon deficit. Compared with other bodies in the solar system the Earth has far less carbon than would be expected for a planet that supports life. Originally it was thought that in the inner region of the dust disc where the Earth formed, temperatures soared high enough for the carbon to boil away. However, observations of developing solar systems have now suggested that the temperature would not have been high enough. It is more likely that fire is to blame. Hot oxygen atoms would have readily combined with carbon, burning to produce carbon dioxide. There would have been fewer of these oxygen atoms further away from the Sun.

Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the above argument?

  • AThe carbon that is present on the Earth could have arrived at a later date from an asteroid.
  • BThe abundance of carbon in the asteroid belt surrounding the inner planets increases the further away you get from the Sun.
  • CThere is no theoretical reason why life has to be carbonbased.
  • DThere are other solar systems with Earthlike planets that have an abundance of carbon on them.
  • EAt temperatures that are high enough for carbon to boil away, oxygen would also have boiled away.
Correct answer: B The abundance of carbon in the asteroid belt surrounding the inner planets increases the further away you get from the Sun.

Full explanation

The passage argues that the Earth's carbon deficit is likely due to carbon being burned by hot oxygen atoms (forming CO₂) in the early inner solar system --- rather than carbon boiling away.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : This suggests carbon arrived later, but doesn't directly support the "burning by oxygen" idea.

Option B : This directly supports the argument: it suggests that farther from the Sun (where there would be fewer hot oxygen atoms), carbon is more abundant --- which aligns perfectly with the idea that near the Sun, carbon was burned off.

Option C : Irrelevant to the cause of Earth's carbon deficit.

Option D : Interesting, but it doesn't support why Earth itself lost its carbon.

Option E : This weakens the old explanation but doesn't directly support the new oxygen-burning idea.

Tom is having a celebration and needs to send out 50 invitation cards. The cards must be at least 6 cm wide and at least 8 cm high and Tom wants to put a photo on the card. Each type of card has a standard version and a deluxe version. The prices (per card) that have been quoted to Tom are shown in the table below:

IMAT 2015 question 2 figure

Tom wants to buy the cheapest type of card possible but is willing to pay for the deluxe version instead of the standard.

What is the total extra that Tom would have to pay to buy the deluxe cards?

  • A€30.00
  • B€20.00
  • C€25.00
  • D€22.50
  • E€27.50
Correct answer: D €22.50

Full explanation

According to the limitations of the invitation cards, we can exclude 1st, 2nd, and 4th types of cards. Among the rest of the cards, the cheapest option for 50 cards in the deluxe version is €97.5 (50 x 1.95). For standard --- €75.

Thus, the total extra that Tom would have to pay for the deluxe cards is 22.5 (97.5 - 75).

Now, it might be thought an amazing coincidence if Earth were the only planet in the galaxy on which intelligent life evolved. If it happened here, the one planet we have studied closely, surely one would expect it to have happened on a lot of other planets in the galaxy — planets we have not yet had the chance to examine. This objection, however, rests on a fallacy: it overlooks what is known as an 'observation selection effect', so it wouldn't be such a coincidence. Whether intelligent life is common or rare, every observer is guaranteed to originate from a place where intelligent life did, in fact, arise. Since only the successes give rise to observers who can wonder about their existence, it would be a mistake to regard our planet as a randomly selected sample from all planets.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

  • AOur planet is not a randomly selected sample from all planets.
  • BHowever common intelligent life is, every observer will certainly originate from a place where intelligent life did, in fact, arise.
  • CIf life had evolved here on Earth, it would probably have happened on a lot of other planets in the galaxy.
  • DThere would be no amazing coincidence if we discovered that Earth were the only planet in the galaxy on which intelligent life evolved.
  • EIt would be an amazing coincidence if Earth were the only planet in the galaxy on which intelligent life evolved.
Correct answer: D There would be no amazing coincidence if we discovered that Earth were the only planet in the galaxy on which intelligent life evolved.

Full explanation

It addresses the idea that it would seem like an amazing coincidence if Earth were the only planet with intelligent life. But --- it says this thinking is flawed because of an observation selection effect. So, it wouldn't actually be a surprising coincidence.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : True, but it's a supporting point, not the main conclusion.

Option B : Also true, and central to the reasoning, but this is a premise leading to the conclusion.

Option C : That's the belief the passage is arguing against.

Option D : This captures the passage's point exactly --- it directly addresses the initial claim about coincidence and says there's no amazing coincidence because of the observation selection effect.

Option E : This is the initial claim being challenged.

Alberto has decided to paint his dining room. Paint comes in 1 litre cans. The paint in one can will cover an area of approximately 24 square metres. The dining room is 4 m x 6 m x 3.5 m high. There is just one window which is in one of the long walls and is 1.5 m x 2 m.

All of the walls, door and ceiling are to be painted with the same type of paint.

Approximately 20% of the wall area to be painted is wood which will need a second coat of paint.

What is the minimum number of cans of paint that Alberto should buy to have sufficient to complete the room?

  • A4 cans
  • B6 cans
  • C5 cans
  • D2 cans
  • E3 cans
Correct answer: C 5 cans

Full explanation

- Painting the room -

Room measurement --- 4 m x 6 m x 3.5 m high

Side walls area --- 2(6m x 3.5m) = 42 m2

Front and back wall areas --- 2 (4m x 3.5m) = 28 m2

Ceiling area --- 6m x 4m = 24 m2

Since, 20% of the wall area need second coat,

Total wall area to be painted = 120% ((42 m2 + 28 m2 - 3m2 (window))

= (120)/(100) × 67 m2 = 80,4 m2

Total area to be painted = 80,4 m2 + 24 m2 = 104.4 m2

Since 1 can of paint can cover an area of approximately 24 square metres, for 104.4 m2, 5 minimum cans of paint are required.

Children are being encouraged to take up gardening through special events at shows and activities in schools. It is hoped that an interest in gardening, and particularly growing one's own food, will make children more interested in learning about their food and they will therefore be deterred from eating junk food. The initiative should be supported and spread to more schools as quickly as possible.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?

  • AThe practical experience of gardening is not a traditional academic subject.
  • BThe events to encourage children to garden also included stands where junk food was for sale.
  • CSome schools do not have a garden.
  • DIt tends to be older people who are interested in gardening and growing their own food.
  • EMost children have enjoyed the events provided, but have not gained an interest in gardening itself.
Correct answer: E Most children have enjoyed the events provided, but have not gained an interest in gardening itself.

Full explanation

The argument is saying that --- Children are encouraged to garden through school activities. It's hoped this will make them care more about their food and deter them from eating junk food. Because of this, the author argues the initiative should be supported and expanded.

A statement showing that the gardening events don't actually lead to an interest in gardening, or that the link between gardening and reduced junk food consumption doesn't hold, would weaken this argument.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Irrelevant to whether it helps children avoid junk food.

Option B : Ironical, but unless it says kids bought junk food or it reduced gardening interest, it doesn't directly weaken the argument.

Option C : This limits where the program can run but doesn't challenge whether the idea works where it's tried.

Option D : Demographic info about adults --- doesn't directly weaken the claim about children's response.

Option E : The whole initiative's goal is to get kids interested in gardening so they care more about their food. If most kids enjoy the events but don't become interested in gardening, the expected outcome (better food choices, avoiding junk food) is unlikely.So, this effectively weaken the argument.

Leroy cycles to work each morning. The first half of his journey is uphill and he can manage only a steady 5 kilometres per hour. The second half, however, is downhill and he covers this at 15 kilometres per hour.

Which one of these graphs could show Leroy's journey?

  • A
    IMAT 2015 question 6 answer option A
  • B
    IMAT 2015 question 6 answer option B
  • C
    IMAT 2015 question 6 answer option C
  • D
    IMAT 2015 question 6 answer option D
  • E
    IMAT 2015 question 6 answer option E
Correct answer: E

Full explanation

The graphs in the options given are distance-time graphs. So, the slope of this graph tells the velocity or the rate of cycling. Steeper the line, greater is the velocity.

Leroy divides the journey into the first half and second half. So, there will be 2 sections which have equal distance. From this information, we can exclude the graph B (first half has shorter distance than second half).

The journey is from home to work, so, the total distance should cover some distance, but not zero surely. So, we can exclude the graph C and D.

Rate for the first half = 5 kilometres per hour

Rate for the second half = 15 kilometres per hour

Second half has seen higher velocity --- a steeper graph line.

Therefore, graph E is the most appropriate one for the journey.

Studies are taking place to assess the benefits to dental health of adding fluoride to drinking water, a process known as mass medication. The Health Minister has urged consideration of fluoridation, particularly in deprived areas where dental care is poor. Fluoride can occur naturally in the water because of fluoride containing minerals. Fluoride, if in the water, improves dental health by up to 50 percent. Even so, fluoridation should not take place. A campaign leader opposed to fluoridation has spoken of her experiences of living in a fluoridated area of the USA. She experienced feelings of apathy and depression; her 2 year old son showed autistic tendencies and had white flecks on his teeth. These symptoms disappeared when they returned home from the USA.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the argument above?

  • AMass medication is always wrong.
  • BFluoridation of water is a person's only source of fluoride.
  • CThe reported health symptoms were caused by fluoride in the water.
  • DFluoridation is cheaper than improving dental facilities.
  • EFluoridation is only necessary in deprived areas.
Correct answer: C The reported health symptoms were caused by fluoride in the water.

Full explanation

The passage mentions fluoride improves dental health.

The Health Minister supports its use in areas with poor dental care.

But --- a campaign leader argues against it, citing personal health issues and those of her child while living in a fluoridated area, which disappeared when they left.

Conclusion: Even so, fluoridation should not take place.

We need to find an assumption which is something the argument depends on being true for the reasoning to make sense, even if it isn't stated directly.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : No --- the argument doesn't claim this, it focuses on the specific case of fluoridation.

Option B : Irrelevant to the argument's reasoning about health effects in fluoridated areas.

Option C : Yes --- this is crucial. The campaign leader blames fluoride for her and her son's symptoms, and uses this as a reason against fluoridation. If those symptoms weren't caused by fluoride, the argument falls apart.

Option D : This is never discussed or implied.

Option E : Also not assumed. The campaign leader opposes fluoridation altogether, not just in deprived areas.

Concern about the effects of chemicals upon the environment has led to calls for more research. But we should not wait for further research before we ban some of the chemicals used by industry. If anyone has a good reason to think something is harmful, it should not be used until, or unless, the risk is found to be zero. We know enough about past mistakes to be forewarned. Much of the harm to wildlife and humans is longterm, and the disturbing results we see today reflect the chemical environment 40 years ago. Thousands more chemicals have been released into the environment since then.

Which one of the following most closely matches the reasoning above?

  • APeople should not be able to adopt children until proper checks have been carried out. Serious consequences may follow if adoptive parents are unsuitable.
  • BA suspected terrorist should be arrested at once. Waiting for conclusive evidence in the past has resulted in atrocities that could have been avoided by acting on suspicion, and the threat of terrorism has grown.
  • CSome homes for the elderly have been found to give dangerously substandard care. Therefore they should be closed down and the residents found acceptable alternatives.
  • DCyclists should not place too much confidence in the benefits of helmets, because there is no conclusive evidence as yet that helmets prevent serious injuries.
  • ESome cars that have passed the annual roadworthiness test would not pass 6 months later. Cars should be tested more than once a year once they pass a certain age.
Correct answer: B A suspected terrorist should be arrested at once. Waiting for conclusive evidence in the past has resulted in atrocities that could have been avoided by acting on suspicion, and the threat of terrorism has grown.

Full explanation

Core reasoning pattern:

If something is suspected to be harmful based on reasonable grounds, it should be stopped immediately without waiting for full proof, because past delays have caused damage, and risks continue to grow.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : This is about taking precautions before acting --- but it's about prevention before action rather than halting suspected harm before full proof.

Option B : Yes --- this is a direct match. It argues for acting on suspicion without waiting for conclusive evidence, citing past inaction that led to serious consequences and a growing risk.

Option C : This is about confirmed cases of harm, not acting on suspicion.

Option D : This is about being cautious in assuming benefit without proof --- not about stopping a suspected harm immediately.

Option E : This suggests increasing vigilance, not halting something suspected of harm before conclusive proof.

When I made a hotel reservation online yesterday I was given an 8 digit

booking reference which contained no zeros. It did, however, consist of three 2 digit odd numbers followed by the sum of these three numbers, and all eight digits were different.

The first digit of the booking reference was 4. What was the last digit?

  • A3
  • B5
  • C9
  • D7
  • E1
Correct answer: D 7

Full explanation

Given info about booking reference code

- 8 digits

- No Zeros

- three 2 digit odd numbers followed by the sum of these three numbers

- all eight digits were different.

- 1st digit is 4

Possible last digit - ?

As far as we know, the digit is 4 O X O X O \_ \_ (O = odd number)

Since the last 2 digits are the sum of the former three 2 digits, we will try to make these three former digits the smallest number possible.

4 O X O X O \_ \_

In places of O, 5 odd numbers are available --- 1, 3, 5, 7, 9

Even numbers available --- 2, 6, 8

If we think of the first three 2 digits without odd numbers and using the smallest number possible from even numbers --- 40 + 20 + 60 = 120 (already overshoot the 2 digit limit). So, we need to take a number from the odd numbers. We will take the smallest first --- which is 1.

So, 40 + 10 + 20 = 70 (seems to work, so, let's continue thinking of odd numbers --- 3, 5, 7 and 9 are left.)

Let's put the smallest odd numbers first.

43 + 15 + 27 = 85 (5 repeats - so, do not work)

43 + 15 + 29 = 87 (Perfect! — no numbers repeat)

Booking reference code - 43152987

So, the last digit is 7.

Climate scientists in Greenland studying patterns of plant growth have suggested that the early arrival of spring in the Arctic threatens to drive down populations of migrating animals such as caribou. However, comparable studies elsewhere show that their fears are unfounded. A recent study of great tits in Oxfordshire showed the birds are capable of adapting to climate change better than many scientists expected. Over the past half century, the birds have brought forward the date they lay their eggs by two weeks, so that young are born when plant eating grubs are most plentiful.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?

  • AMigrating animals in the Arctic can adapt to climate change as successfully as great tits in Oxfordshire.
  • BBirds are more adaptable than large mammals such as caribou.
  • CUnless animals like the caribou produce their young earlier in the year, their population will fall.
  • DThe scientists working in Oxfordshire have greater expertise than those working in Greenland.
  • EClimate change in Greenland and climate change in Oxfordshire are of the same scale.
Correct answer: A Migrating animals in the Arctic can adapt to climate change as successfully as great tits in Oxfordshire.

Full explanation

The implied conclusion from the given paragraph is that The fears that earlier springs in the Arctic will harm migrating animals like caribou are unfounded (or at least possibly overstated). Because evidence from elsewhere (Oxfordshire's great tits) shows species adapting successfully to climate change.

To make this argument work, there's an unstated assumption: that migrating animals like caribou can adapt in a way similar to the great tits.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : This is the correct answer. The argument's comparison only makes sense if we assume that Arctic animals are capable of adapting in the same way. Without this, the Oxfordshire study wouldn't weaken concerns about Arctic animals.

Option B : This would actually weaken the argument's reasoning, because if birds are more adaptable, then you can't safely assume caribou would manage the same way.

Option C : This statement highlights the problem, but it's not an assumption supporting the counter-argument about adaptability.

Option D : The argument isn't about which scientists are more expert --- it's about the adaptability of species in response to climate change.

Option E : While this might seem relevant, the argument's core reasoning hinges on biological adaptability, not whether the environmental changes are equally intense.

The table below shows the average mass of the cerebellum, which is a part of the brain, and total body mass, for a number of animal species. The cerebellum of a cat has an average mass of 5.3 g, while a cat's average body mass is 3.5 kg.

IMAT 2015 question 11 figure

For which of the species shown is the ratio of cerebellum to total body mass closest to that of the cat?

  • APigeon
  • BSquirrel
  • CDog
  • DRabbit
  • EMouse
Correct answer: E Mouse

Full explanation

Question : which of the species shown is the ratio of cerebellum to total body mass closest to that of the cat?

(Calculations are considered manageable to think through without a calculator.)

Ratio of cerebellum to total body mass of a cat = (5.3)/(3.5 ) × 10- 3 = (53)/(35) × 10- 3 = 1(18)/(35) × 10- 3 (nearly 1(1)/(2) × 10- 3)

Ratio in mouse = (0.09)/(58) = (9)/(5.8) × 10- 3 = 1(3.2)/(5.8 ) × 10- 3

Ratio in pigeon = (0.4)/(500 ) = (4)/(5 ) × 10- 3 (can exclude this because ratio is less than 1 × 10- 3)

Ratio in squirrel = (1.5)/(350 ) = (15)/(3.5 ) × 10- 3 (can exclude this because ratio is not similar)

Ratio in Rabbit = (1.9)/(1800) = (1.9)/(1.8 ) × 10- 3 (can exclude this because ratio is around 1 × 10- 3)

Ratio in dog = (6.0)/(3500 ) = (6)/(3.5 ) × 10- 3 = 1(2,5)/(3,5) × 10- 3

If we compare ratio in mouse with ratio in dog, obviously (3.2)/(5.8 ) is closer to (1)/(2) than (2,5)/(3,5).

So, the mouse has the closest cerebellum to body mass ratio to that of the cat.

Sports are played either as a means of getting exercise or as a competition with an opponent. Some sports, such as football, involve a large amount of running and some people are more motivated to run when it is part of a game. Other sports, such as pool, do not involve much physical activity and so it is unlikely that they would be played for the exercise.

Which one of the following conclusions is best supported by the passage above?

  • AFootball is a better sporting activity than pool.
  • BThere is no point in running as a hobby, since football is more fun.
  • CIt is easier to exercise when it is as part of another activity, such as playing sport.
  • DPeople who play pool are more likely to be interested in the competition than those who play football.
  • ESince the main reason for playing sports is to get exercise, pool should not be classified as a sport.
Correct answer: D People who play pool are more likely to be interested in the competition than those who play football

Full explanation

Main idea of the passage

Sports are played either for exercise or competition.

Some sports (e.g., football) involve a lot of exercise.

Some sports (e.g., pool) involve little physical activity and so, unlikely to be played as an exercise.

So, the author wants to specify two categories of purposes to do sports : exercise and competition.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : It is not stated in the passage.

Option B : Passage never says running is pointless; also no direct comparison of "fun" levels.

Option C : This is provided as a fact to support the main idea. Not the main conclusion.

Option D : Correct. This is a fact that can be concluded from the given paragraph. 2 categories : exercise and competition.

Option E : Passage never claims the main reason for sports is exercise; it clearly mentions both exercise and competition as valid reasons.

Looking in his rear-view mirror, Graham sensed that there was something wrong with the number plate of the car behind him. When the car overtook him and he saw its rear plate he realised that the front plate had been upside down.

IMAT 2015 question 13 figure

What had Graham seen in his rearview mirror?

  • A
    IMAT 2015 question 13 answer option A
  • B
    IMAT 2015 question 13 answer option B
  • C
    IMAT 2015 question 13 answer option C
  • D
    IMAT 2015 question 13 answer option D
  • E
    IMAT 2015 question 13 answer option E
Correct answer: D

Full explanation

IMAT 2015 question 13 figure

The correct number plate : S308 CNH

First, we can exclude some options.

Exclude option A and C because S and 3 should be facing each other.

Exclude option E because the larger curvature of S should be facing outwards.

Exclude option B because C should be facing N.

So, the only option left is option D.

Although it is sometimes suggested that the congestion caused by the bunching of cars on motorways could be eased by increasing the speed limit to 150 km/hr, such an increase would not be a good thing. An estimated 35 per cent of drivers exceed the speed limit by 20 km/hr and would continue to do so if the limit were raised. Since bunching is caused by speeding drivers trying to pass those who observe the speed limit, raising the limit to 150 km/hr would result in the same amount of congestion, but at an increased speed. Moreover, a higher speed limit would encourage all drivers to drive faster, and thus would increase the existing danger from those who drive too close to the car in front.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

  • ACongestion on motorways is caused by speeding drivers trying to pass those who observe the speed limit.
  • BA higher speed limit on motorways would encourage all drivers to drive faster.
  • CAn increase in the speed limit would increase the existing danger from those drivers who drive too close.
  • DRaising the speed limit to 150 km/hr would not reduce congestion on motorways.
  • EIt would not be a good thing to increase the speed limit to 150 km/hr.
Correct answer: E It would not be a good thing to increase the speed limit to 150 km/hr.

Full explanation

Some people suggest raising the speed limit to 150 km/h to reduce congestion. This is antagonized by several facts. So, the conclusion leads to the fact that the suggestion would not be a good thing.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : This is a supporting fact, not the overall conclusion.

Option B : Another supporting point, but not the overall claim.

Option C : Again, a supporting reason, not the main argument.

Option D : Partially true, but only covers congestion, while the argument also discusses safety concerns --- too narrow to be the main conclusion.

Option E : Exactly matches the final judgment made after presenting all the facts.

Food producers are resisting pressure to reduce still further the levels of salt in food. Although it is proven that salt intake must be reduced by those with hypertension, there is no evidence that reducing salt intake prevents hypertension. So why should we all be deprived of the pleasures of salt in food? We certainly need to identify those with hypertension and give them advice on their salt intake, but why should everyone else be deprived of salt? Food producers are right to resist the pressure.

Which one of the following best illustrates the principle underlying the argument above?

  • AAdding fluoride to drinking water has reduced tooth decay, but fluoride is unwelcome to some people. Instead, dentists should advise patients with tooth problems on better tooth care.
  • BThe requirement to wear seatbelts has reduced deaths in car accidents but was unpopular when first introduced. People eventually accepted such changes even if it has not benefited them personally.
  • CAdvice to wear sunblock to protect the skin from harmful rays is ignored by some people. Those people should be charged for medical treatment for skin cancer.
  • DPassive smoking is still a problem for people who share a home with a smoker. The law should be extended to make smoking illegal even in the home.
  • ERetailers cannot sell alcohol to people under 18 years, but providing more general advice on alcohol in schools would be better, as it would encourage young people to be self limiting in their consumption of alcohol.
Correct answer: A Adding fluoride to drinking water has reduced tooth decay, but fluoride is unwelcome to some people. Instead, dentists should advise patients with tooth problems on better tooth care.

Full explanation

The underlying principle is: Target the advice or restriction to the group who needs it, rather than applying it unnecessarily to everyone.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Matches perfectly: Don't impose a general measure (fluoride for all); target individuals with problems. Same principle as salt and hypertension.

Option B : This supports general measures for everyone --- opposite to the argument about not imposing on everyone.

Option C : This discusses punishment for non-compliance, not about targeting advice or avoiding general restrictions.

Option D : This promotes even stricter general rules --- again, opposite to the principle about only targeting those necessary.

Option E : Talks about education, not about avoiding unnecessary restrictions.

There are two services between Sandpoint and Genville: a fast hovercraft service which takes 50 minutes and a slow ferry which takes 1 hour 40 minutes. They both stop in port for 20 minutes at each end before starting the return journey. They start out from Sandpoint together at the same time each morning.

For how long has the slow ferry been sailing before it meets the hovercraft coming back? (Answer to the nearest minute if necessary.)

  • A1 hour and 20 minutes
  • B1 hour and 7 minutes
  • C1 hour and 30 minutes
  • D1 hour and 25 minutes
  • E1 hour and 10 minutes
Correct answer: A 1 hour and 20 minutes

Full explanation

Trip from Sandpoint to Genville

Fast ferry --- takes 50 minutes

Slow ferry --- takes 100 minutes

When they arrive at port, stop for 20 minutes and then return.

Question : For how long has the slow ferry been sailing before it meets the hovercraft coming back?

When the fast ferry finishes its route from S to G and starts the return journey, 70 minutes pass and the slow ferry is more than half way.

Assume the total distance = D

Fast ferry speed = D / 50 minutes.

Slow ferry speed = D / 100 minutes.

Suppose they meet t minutes after the hovercraft leaves Genville (after 70 minutes).

In those t minutes: - Fast ferry travels: (D/50) × t distance back towards Sandpoint.

- Slow ferry travels: (D/100) × (70 + t) distance towards Genville.

Since they meet when the sum of the distances they have covered is equal to D:

Distance traveled by ferry + Distance traveled by hovercraft = D

(D)/(100) × (70 + t) + (D)/(50) × t = D

(70 + t)/(100) + (t)/(50 ) = 1

70 + t + 2t = 100

3t = 30

t = 10 minutes

So, total sailing time = 70 + 10 = 80 minutes (1 hour and 20 minutes)

A farmer wishes to fix fencing rails to posts which are already in place. The posts are shown in the diagram. The farmer has a supply of rails, each one 2.4 m long. One rail or part of a rail is to be fixed between each pair of posts. (He can cut the rails into smaller lengths.)

IMAT 2015 question 17 figure

What is the smallest number of rails that he could use?

  • A5
  • B3
  • C4
  • D6
  • E7
Correct answer: A 5

Full explanation

Total distance to fence = 1075 cm

Length of a rail = 240 cm

To cover 1075 cm, at least 5 rails are needed.

Undercover police investigators sometimes commit 'crimes' in order to convince the 'real criminals' that they are on the same side as them. Some of these activities have victims, although in the main these are other criminals — rival gang members for example. In committing what are technically offences the officers are preventing many more serious crimes by helping to convict and imprison dangerous criminals who might otherwise remain at liberty. But that is not really the point. A breach of the law is a breach of the law, whoever commits it and for whatever reason. Preventing a crime does not make it right to commit another crime.

Which one of the following is the general principle underlying the above argument?

  • AAn act is criminal only if it is committed for criminal reasons.
  • BSerious crime must be prevented by any reasonable means.
  • CThe police have a duty to protect law abiding citizens from violence.
  • DThere is no such thing as a victimless crime.
  • EThe end does not justify the means.
Correct answer: E The end does not justify the means.

Full explanation

The principle comes from the statement that says breach of the law is a breach of the law, whoever commits it and for whatever reason. So, doing something wrong (breaking the law) is not justified by the good results it might produce (catching criminals).

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Incorrect. The passage says any breach of the law is wrong, regardless of intention.

Option B : Incorrect. This supports committing minor crimes to stop bigger ones --- opposite to the argument!

Option C : Incorrect. This is a true statement but not the principle discussed in this passage.

Option D : Incorrect. Mentioned briefly (victims being other criminals), but not the main focus.

Option E : Matches exactly --- committing a crime is still wrong, even if it prevents worse outcomes.

Deanna keeps a record of the petrol she puts into her car and the current distance it has covered so she can estimate her fuel consumption. When she puts petrol in, sometimes the tank is filled completely and she marks 'FULL' beside the entry if this is so, otherwise the tank is only partly filled.

Her data for the last month is as follows:

IMAT 2015 question 19 figure

Which one of the following is the best estimate of her fuel consumption?

  • A9.9 litres / 100 km
  • B7.7 litres / 100 km
  • C1.7 litres / 100 km
  • D6.8 litres / 100 km
  • E8.0 litres / 100 km
Correct answer: D 6.8 litres / 100 km

Full explanation

To calculate the fuel consumption, we will use the data starting from the day with the full tank of fuel till another date with the full fuel tank.

From 6th to 23rd June,

total distance covered = 24,989 − 23,805=1,184 km

Total liters of fuel added = 25 + 21 + 34 = 80 L

Fuel consumption = (80L)/(1,184 km )

For 1,184 km --- 80 L of fuel consumed

For 100 km --- 80 × (100)/(1,184) = (8000)/(1,184) =nearly 7

So, the best estimate of her fuel consumption is 6.8 litres / 100 km

A local museum wishes to exhibit a collection of butterflies which is mounted in nine narrow (only 0.2 m wide) display cases, each 1.5 m long. The museum wants to arrange four tables, each 2 m long and 1 m wide, in such a way that all the display cases can be placed around the edges. The room for the exhibition is 6 m by 6 m and there must be at least 1 m of clear floor space around the outside of the tables.

Which one of the five arrangements shown would be satisfactory?

  • A
    IMAT 2015 question 20 answer option A
  • B
    IMAT 2015 question 20 answer option B
  • C
    IMAT 2015 question 20 answer option C
  • D
    IMAT 2015 question 20 answer option D
  • E
    IMAT 2015 question 20 answer option E
Correct answer: C

Full explanation

The room for the exhibition is 6 m by 6 m and there must be at least 1 m of clear floor space around the outside of the tables.

IMAT 2015 question 20 figure

Which one of the following pairs of scholar/field of study is NOT correct?

  • AAmartya Sen Economics
  • BKonrad Lorenz Ethology
  • CDoris Lessing Literature
  • DMax Weber Pedagogy
  • ELudwig Wittgenstein Philosophy
Correct answer: D Max Weber Pedagogy

Full explanation

Max Weber was mainly known for Sociology and Economics, not education (pedagogy).

Which one of the following public figures was NOT awarded the Nobel Peace Prize?

  • AAung San Suu Kyi
  • BNelson Mandela
  • CWilly Brandt
  • DMahatma Gandhi
  • EMartin Luther King
Correct answer: D Mahatma Gandhi

Full explanation

Mahatma Gandhi is nominated several times but never awarded.

Biology

Cell biology, genetics, molecular biology & human physiology · 18 questions
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The changes in concentration of hormones in a healthy woman's blood were monitored during several menstrual cycles.

During which stage of the menstrual cycle was the concentration of oestrogen falling, the concentration of luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) maximal and the progesterone concentration rising?

  • Aat the start of menstruation
  • Bat the end of menstruation
  • Cfour days before ovulation and the time of ovulation
  • Dafter ovulation but before the start of menstruation
  • Ebetween the end of menstruation and four days before ovulation
Correct answer: C four days before ovulation and the time of ovulation

Full explanation

IMAT 2015 question 23 figure

Image from KAPLAN MCAT Biology review

The stage when the concentration of oestrogen falling, the concentration of luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) maximal and the progesterone concentration rising is around the time of ovulation.

Therefore, appropriate answer is C. four days before ovulation and the time of ovulation

The following events occur during a reflex response to a person placing a hand on a hot object.

1. Myosin binding sites on actin filaments uncovered.

2. ADP and phosphate ion released from myosin head.

3. Sodium voltage gated channels open.

4. Myosin head detaches from binding site on actin.

5. Calcium ions released by sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Which of the following options places four of these events in the correct order (from left to right)?

  • A3, 5, 4, 2
  • B5, 2, 1, 4
  • C1, 2, 4, 3
  • D5, 1, 2, 4
  • E3, 1, 4, 2
Correct answer: D 5, 1, 2, 4

Full explanation

5 events are given and we have to order 4 for a reflex response.

When a person touches a hot object, he withdraws his hand immediately. So, a muscle contraction occurs in his hand. Steps of muscle contraction are

- Calcium ions are released by sarcoplasmic reticulum

- As a result, myosin binding sites on actin filaments uncovered.

- Myosin binds to actin

- Powerstroke occurs when ADP and phosphate ion dissociate from myosin.

- Then, new ATP binds to myosin, causing detachment of myosin from actin.

Sodium voltage gated channel opening occurs during the action potential so it is an unrelated event to the muscle contraction phase.

So, the correct order of events would be D. 5, 1, 2, 4

IMAT 2015 question 24 figure

Image from KAPLAN MCAT Biology review book

The genotype QqRr produces a certain phenotype. If two individuals with a genotype of QqRr reproduce, how many different possible phenotypes could be created, assuming all allele combinations are equally viable and the phenotypes are the result of complete dominance?

  • A16
  • B4
  • C5
  • D8
  • E9
Correct answer: B 4

Full explanation

If two individuals with a genotype of QqRr reproduce --- meaning when 2 heterozygous dihybrids (QqRr x QqRr) are crossed, the phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1. (You can always write a punnett square for each cross but it is recommended to memorize the typical phenotypic ratios of a dihybrid cross. )

The 9:3:3:1 ratio indicates the presence of four distinct phenotypes, each occurring in different proportions. So, 4 different possible phenotypes could be created from this cross.

A double stranded DNA molecule is shown below:

IMAT 2015 question 26 figure

This DNA molecule is allowed to replicate three times in a medium containing nonradioactive nucleotides .

Which answer shows the correct percentages of original DNA and completely non radioactive DNA?

IMAT 2015 question 26 figure

[Assume all radioactive nucleotides remain radioactive throughout, and all non radioactive nucleotides remain nonradioactive throughout].

  • Arow 4
  • Brow 1
  • Crow 5
  • Drow 3
  • Erow 2
Correct answer: B row 1

Full explanation

After third round of replication, the number of DNA molecules would be 23 = 8

percentages of original DNA = (1)/(8) × 100% = 12.5%

Percentage of completely non-radioactive DNA = (7)/(8) × 100% = 87.5%

Note: We will consider each double-stranded DNA as one DNA molecule, without counting individual strands separately.

Which of the following are directly produced during photolysis of water?

1. Oxygen

2. carbon dioxide

3. Protons

  • A1 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1 and 2 only
  • E2 only
Correct answer: C 1 and 3 only

Full explanation

Photolysis of water is a process that occurs in the thylakoid lumen during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.

Direct products

- Oxygen : yes, released as a byproduct into the atmosphere.

- Carbon dioxide : no, CO₂ is used in the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions), not produced during photolysis.

- Protons (H⁺) : yes, Released into the thylakoid lumen, contributing to the proton gradient for ATP synthesis.

Therefore, the correct option is C. 1 and 3 only

In the nerve cells of a person, one gene has two alleles, 'A' and 'a', present. For this person, which row correctly shows the alleles present in all three different situations given in the table?

IMAT 2015 question 28 figure
  • Arow 1
  • Brow 2
  • Crow 5
  • Drow 4
  • Erow 3
Correct answer: A row 1

Full explanation

In this individual, the gene is heterozygous with the alleles Aa (one 'A' on one homologous chromosome and one 'a' on the other).

In stem cells beginning to specialise into a liver cell, the cell is in a non-replicating state, so it will have one 'A' and one 'a' --- represented as Aa.

In a cell at the start of mitosis, DNA replication has already occurred during the S phase of interphase. As a result, each chromosome has been duplicated, so the cell now contains AAaa (two identical sister chromatids for each homologous chromosome).

In a cell at the start of meiosis I, DNA replication has also occurred during the S phase, so the genetic content is likewise AAaa.

Thus, the correct row is row 1 (option A)

The diagram shows a single sarcomere in a relaxed state.

IMAT 2015 question 29 figure

Which answer describes the changes when the sarcomere contracts?

  • A1 gets smaller and 2 gets smaller.
  • B1 gets smaller and 2 does not change.
  • C1 gets longer and 2 gets smaller.
  • D1 does not change and 2 gets wider.
  • E1 gets longer and 2 gets wider.
Correct answer: B 1 gets smaller and 2 does not change.

Full explanation

IMAT 2015 question 29 figure

\|Kaplan MCAT Biology review\|

According to the image, during muscle contraction, the sarcomere (label number 1) shortens and the label number 2 stays the same. (Option B)

The diagram below shows an amino acid.

IMAT 2015 question 30 figure

Which option correctly identifies both the variable group (R group) and the acidic group?

  • Avariable group = 4; acidic group = 3
  • Bvariable group = 3; acidic group = 1
  • Cvariable group = 2; acidic group = 3
  • Dvariable group = 1; acidic group = 2
  • Evariable group = 2; acidic group = 4
Correct answer: C variable group = 2; acidic group = 3

Full explanation

In an amino acid, there is the carboxyl group (-COOH) which is the acidic group, the amino group, hydrogen atom and a variable group.

In the given image, the variable group is indicated by label number 2 and the acidic group is indicated by label number 3.

The given amino acid is Alanine.

Where in a shoulder joint are osteocytes found?

  • Amuscle tissue
  • BLigament
  • CCartilage
  • Dbone tissue
  • Eskin
Correct answer: D bone tissue

Full explanation

Osteocytes are mature bone cells found within bone tissue, where they maintain the bone matrix. They live in small spaces called lacunae within the hard, mineralized matrix of bone.

- Muscle tissue --- contains muscle fibers, no osteocytes.

- Ligament --- made of dense regular connective tissue, no osteocytes.

- Cartilage --- contains chondrocytes, not osteocytes.

- Skin --- made of epithelial and connective tissue layers, no osteocytes.

The picture below shows a DNA microarray. Each spot (labelled 1--4) contains a different DNA probe. A sample of fluorescently labelled human DNA, with the sequence TGGTCAAGATTAT, is washed over the array.

IMAT 2015 question 32 figure
IMAT 2015 question 32 figure

Which of the spots would show a positive signal because it fluoresces?

  • A1, 2, 3 and 4
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1 and 4 only
  • E2 and 4 only
Correct answer: B 2 and 3 only

Full explanation

A sample of fluorescently labelled human DNA, with the sequence TGGTCAAGATTAT, is washed over the array that contains 4 spots with different DNA probes. So, hydrogen bonding will occur if the DNA found a complementary sequence in each probe.

The probes are GATTAT, CTAATA, ACCAGT, and TGGTCA

Complementary strand of given DNA would be ACCAGTTCTAATA

So, it can be seen that a segment of it has a similar sequence with probe in spot 2 and a segment similar to probe in spot 3.

Therefore, these 2 spots (2 and 3) would show a positive signal.

The diagram shows how the pressure changes in the left atrium, left ventricle and the aorta during one heartbeat in a healthy human.

IMAT 2015 question 33 figure

Which row shows the correct events during time period X?

IMAT 2015 question 33 figure
  • Arow 2
  • Brow 3
  • Crow 5
  • Drow 4
  • Erow 1
Correct answer: E row 1

Full explanation

During period X, which represents atrial contraction, the volume of blood in the left atrium decreases as it is pushed into the left ventricle. During this time, the semilunar valves remain closed and the ventricles are relaxed.

Therefore, the correct row is row 1.

The table shows some events of the normal eukaryotic cell cycle.