IMAT 2014 Answers & Worked Solution

Full explanation

The author presents reasons like:

– We once thought we could destroy species freely, but we now know better.

– We can’t predict the future and the virus might be valuable someday.

– Captive viruses pose no harm.

Then they say:

Given that this will be the first example of a deliberate destruction of an entire species, we should think again before destroying these viruses.

This sentence gives the main idea of conclusion and we have to find an option that has the same idea.

Analysis of the given options Option A : This is a reason for the upcoming conclusion. Not the main conclusion.

Option B : Supporting point, not the conclusion.

Option C : Too extreme and general Option D : This is the accurate restatement of the conclusion.

Option E : A reason, not the conclusion.

Full explanation

The author argues that it’s a foolish fantasy to believe the Olympics can ever be free of politics. Then states:

Nations hosting do so for their own (legitimate) reasons, not for pure ideals. Nations boycotting do so to make genuine political points.

So the main implication is: Politics have always been part of the Olympics, and those acting politically are merely exposing the myth that the Olympics are apolitical.

Analysis of the given options Option A : the passage doesn’t say no one admits it. It says the belief persists, but doesn’t claim no one is brave enough to acknowledge it.

Option B : This is a value judgment not made in the passage.

Option C : The author isn’t arguing against politicisation — they’re pointing out it already happens and mocking the idea it ever was or could be apolitical.

Option D : This captures the passage’s point: The belief in apolitical Olympics is a “foolish fantasy” and the actions of nations (hosting or boycotting) simply expose that myth.

Option E : The author doesn’t propose any action to prevent politicisation.

Full explanation

Passage summary Elections should reflect what policies the people support. Tactical voting is when people switch votes to stop a less-desired party (Party X) from winning. This works if your main goal is to beat Party X. However, it undermines the original purpose of elections.

Analysis of the given options Option A : This is related to tactical voting, but the passage doesn’t make this general claim. It focuses on the consequences of tactical voting.

Option B : The passage doesn’t support this. In fact, it points out a problem with tactical voting.

Option C : Correct. The purpose of an election is to reflect which policies people support. Tactical voting prioritises beating a party over expressing true policy preference. This is exactly the problem the passage highlights.

Option D : It uses this situation as an example to explain tactical voting but doesn’t argue whether Party X winning is good or bad.

Option E : It says nothing about general popularity.

Full explanation

Passage summary – To avoid crashing if the car ahead brakes suddenly, use the two-second rule. The rule is picking a landmark and saying “Only a fool breaks the two second rule”, and check if you reach the point before finishing it. It works at all speeds, though under poor conditions you need to double the distance. So, the conclusion is that these practices will enable you to avoid such crashes. We need to find unstated assumption(s) that hold together the argument.

Analysis of the given options Option A : Too strong — the argument says it’ll help you avoid such crashes (rear-ending due to sudden braking), not all accidents.

Option B : Not stated or implied — the passage focuses only on one type of crash, not crash statistics.

Option C : An unnecessary assumption. The passage argues that the rule helps avoid crashes but doesn’t comment on people’s values.

Option D : Not necessary for the argument — the rule is suggested to account for any sudden braking, regardless of driver habits.

Option E : Correct. The entire method depends on this — if saying “Only a fool breaks the two second rule” takes about two seconds, then it can be used as a timing device. If it took less than two seconds, you’d be misjudging safe distance. This is the unstated assumption underlying the method’s effectiveness.

Full explanation

Let’s check first which options we can exclude using the given preference tetrahedron.

In the given tetrahedron, one side (not the tip) of the black square is facing the blank triangular space. So, this should be consistent to make another identical tetrahedron. It can be seen that in option D and E, the tip of the black square (not the side) is facing the blank triangular space. So, it is certain that both options cannot form an identical triangle and we can exclude these two options (Option D and E).

Next, if we check the alignment of 3 objects placed inside the triangular shaped spaces in a tetrahedron, considering the blank space will be the base, it can be concluded that in clockwise direction, triangle, circle and square would be in order.

In option B, if we imagine constructing a tetrahedron with empty space as the base, it can be seen that triangle, circle and square are ordered in anticlockwise direction. This is different from the original alignment, so we can exclude this option.

In option C, the alignment is the same as the one in option B and so we can also exclude this option.

In option A, it can be visualized that triangle, circle and square are aligned in clockwise direction, same as the reference net. So, this is the correct net that can be folded to make a tetrahedron identical to the reference one.

Full explanation

Research: Top footballers lived 5 years longer on average than middle-ranking footballers.

Conclusion: Therefore, success had a beneficial effect on their lifespan.

In short: Success → longer life.

But is this conclusion properly supported? Or is there a flaw in that reasoning?

Analysis of the given options Option A : Irrelevant. Both top and middle-ranking footballers lived in the same general time frame. This wouldn’t explain the difference between the two groups.

Option B : Correct. This is the flaw. The argument jumps from correlation (top footballers live longer) to causation (success caused them to live longer), without considering other possible explanations.

Option C : Irrelevant. The argument isn’t discussing whether living longer is good or bad — only whether success affects lifespan.

Option D : Both groups are footballers. This doesn’t explain the difference between top and middle-ranking footballers.

Option E : Unless the time limitation directly affects the lifespan difference (which isn’t suggested here), this is not a flaw in the reasoning about cause and effect.

Full explanation

To solve this question, let’s first identify important key points.

Philip, the winner — got 61 points.

He finished in the first 3 every time. (Winner — 11 points, Second — 8 points, Third — 6 points)

We need to find how many races he finished first.

According to the given options, it should be between 1 and 5.

If he won 5 races, even if he finished third in the rest, his total score would be — 55 + 18 = 73 (higher than the given score). So, exclude option C.

If he won 4 races, even if he finished third in the rest, his total score would be — 44 + 24 = 68. So, exclude option D.

If he won 3 races, even if he finished third in the rest, his total score would be — 33 + 30 = 63. So, exclude option B too.

If he won 2 races and finished third in the rest; score — 22 + 36 = 58. Okay. So, let’s assume he won second in one race to get a higher score. Then, the score would be — 22 + 8 + 30 = 60. (Not the same score) Let’s think one more. If we assume he won second in two races, and third in 4 races — 22 + 16 + 24 = 62. (higher than the specific score). So, we can see that scores for winning two races do not work too. Exclude option A.

So, he won only one race, yet finished second in 2 races and third in 4 races — we get the score we wanted, which is 61 (11 + 16 + 24). So, the correct option is option E.

Full explanation

Passage summary : There’s opposition to including modern musical trends like hip-hop in opera. Traditional opera is powerful. But musicians shouldn’t be restricted to the traditional form. New forms that combine drama, singing, and contemporary/ethnic music can also be powerful. And examples about the success of hip-hop opera and how it attracts new audiences is shared. Moving away from tradition’s exclusivity makes opera accessible to more people. And the overall idea of this summary would be the passage’s main conclusion.

Analysis of the given options Option A : this is a supporting point.

Option B : Correct. This is the main conclusion the whole passage is building towards. All the points mentioned in the summary support this core claim: modern forms like hip-hop have a valid place in opera.

Option C : the passage doesn’t focus on entitlement — it argues for the validity and benefits of doing so.

Option D : The passage doesn’t directly claim this. It says modern forms can be powerful and successful in an operatic context.

Option E : This is too vague and broad.

Full explanation

Price of a necklace = ?

Material cost = €1.50

staff expenses = € 2.70 (since it takes 30 mins to make one, divide the hourly cost with half.)

Total expenses = €1.50 + € 2.70 = € 4.2 Since she charges 70% more than it costs to produce,

Price of a necklace = € 4.2 + € 4.2 x 70% = € 4.2 + € 2.94 = € 7.14

Full explanation

Passage summary : There’s concern about referees being abused by players. Some suggested solutions: eg. only captains can speak to referees. The problem is how to introduce new rules. Preferred suggestion: start with amateur games to improve discipline from the bottom up. So the key idea is: If you change amateur football first, that will eventually improve discipline across the whole game. We need to find a statement that most weakens this strategy.

Look for an option that breaks the link between cause and effect or disrupts a key assumption in the argument’s strategy.

Analysis of the given options Option A : If amateur players spend the least time playing, they might have less influence on the wider football culture. However, since they will eventually become professionals, this does not effectively weaken the argument.

Option B : Correct. If few professionals start in the amateur leagues, then improving amateur discipline would not filter up to professional football as the plan assumes. This directly undermines the ‘bottom up’ strategy.

Option C : Actually supports the idea that amateur games need this rule more — making it a reason to start there, not against it.

Option D : This offers an alternative, but doesn’t directly attack the claim that introducing new rules in amateur football could improve discipline overall.

Option E : Irrelevant. The strategy is about where to implement the rules, not the skill level of referees.

Full explanation

Tessa works 5 days a week, making a minimum of 150 bracelets per day, and earns a basic wage of $320 per week. For every bracelet above 175 that she makes in a day, she receives a bonus of $3 per bracelet.

Last week, she earned a total of $515. It’s stated that she made 205 bracelets on Friday.

On Friday, she made 30 bracelets above 175, so she earned a bonus of 30 × $3 = $90.

By then, she had earned $320 (basic wage) + $90 (Friday’s bonus) = $410.

This leaves $515 − $410 = $105 in additional bonus to account for, which corresponds to 35 bracelets (since $105 ÷ $3 = 35).

Since she made the most bracelets on Friday, it’s certain that these remaining 35 bonus bracelets weren’t made in a single day. They must be spread over at least 2 days.

If we split 35 bracelets into 20 and 15, then:

– On one day, she made 175 + 20 = 195 bracelets.

– On another day, she made 175 + 15 = 190 bracelets.

On the remaining two days, she made the minimum 150 bracelets each.

So, the total number of bracelets she made that week is: 195 + 190 + 205 + 150 + 150 = 890.

Full explanation

This reads like a “who’s probably the winner” question, but the constraints actually pin the whole tournament down exactly – there’s no guessing needed.

Start with what limits how many rounds each player can win. Second place is only ever taken by Barry, Daniel or Eric — never Alan or Carl. And the 1st-2nd pairing is different every single round, so if the same person wins more than once, each of those wins needs a different runner-up. That puts a hard ceiling on every player’s win count, based on how many legal runners-up they have to pair with:

Alan can pair with Barry, Daniel or Eric — three possible runners-up, so at most 3 wins before he’d have to repeat a pairing. The same logic gives Carl at most 3 wins.

Barry can’t be his own runner-up, so his only partners are Daniel and Eric — at most 2 wins.

Daniel’s only legal partner is Barry, because pairing with Eric would mean both Lim brothers scoring in the same round, which is explicitly banned — so Daniel can win at most once. The identical reasoning caps Eric at 1 win too.

Add up those ceilings: 3 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 10 — exactly the number of rounds played. Since the total can never exceed 10, and every player needs at least one win, there’s no room for anyone to fall short of their ceiling either — if they did, the total would drop below 10, which isn’t possible. So every player must hit their ceiling exactly, using every one of those legal pairings precisely once. Nothing here is left to chance; the entire win-loss structure of the tournament is forced.

That gives us all 10 rounds: Alan beats Barry, Alan beats Daniel, Alan beats Eric, Carl beats Barry, Carl beats Daniel, Carl beats Eric, Barry beats Daniel, Barry beats Eric, Daniel beats Barry, and Eric beats Barry.

Now the points (3 for a win, 1 for second) settle themselves:

Alan: 3 wins x 3 points = 9. He’s never 2nd, so 9 total.

Carl: exactly the same pattern as Alan — 9 total.

Barry: 2 wins x 3 = 6, plus he’s the runner-up in all four of Alan’s, Carl’s, Daniel’s and Eric’s winning rounds (4 x 1 = 4) — 6 + 4 = 10 total.

Daniel: 1 win x 3 = 3, plus runner-up when Alan, Carl or Barry wins (3 x 1 = 3) — 6 total.

Eric: the same count as Daniel by symmetry — 6 total.

Final scores: Barry 10, Alan 9, Carl 9, Daniel 6, Eric 6. Barry finishes clear of everyone else — not a coin flip, not a tiebreak, just the unique outcome the constraints allow. The winner is (C) Barry Durand.

Full explanation

The argument claims that shocking images are a cost-effective way to reduce smoking — and therefore recommends all countries adopt them. So, the strongest weakening statement would show that the reduced smoking might not be due to the images alone, but to something else happening in those countries.

Analysis of the given options Option A : This actually strengthens the argument by suggesting why the images work.

Option B : Irrelevant. It’s a known fact but doesn’t weaken the claim about the effectiveness of images.

Option C : Irrelevant. This is just an example of a country planning to adopt the idea — it neither weakens nor strengthens the claim.

Option D : Irrelevant to the effectiveness of images in reducing smoking rates.

Option E : This weakens the argument because it suggests that other factors — like high taxes and advertising bans — might be responsible for reducing smoking, not the images alone. This casts doubt on whether the images by themselves are the cost-effective solution.

Full explanation

According to the given points, the following plan can be drawn.

Since it is given that on the ninth day he covered three fifths of the remaining distance, the 36km he finished on the tenth day would be the two-fifth. So, km he covered on ninth day = 36 x (3)/(2 ) = 54 km Another key point given is that he had completed exactly three quarters of the walk after the 8th day. So, the total distance covered during 9th and 10th day (54 + 36 = 90 km) would be a quarter of the walk.

Total distance from S to E = 90 (one-quarter) + 90 x 3 (three-quarter) = 90 + 270 = 360 km

Full explanation

If we compare the volume needed and the price of the paints, it is obvious that Satinwood and Quick Dry Gloss need considerably more volume and cost more. So, we can exclude these two options.

Once Gloss :

Volume needed for 20 rooms = 0.8 x 20 = 16 L (2.5L x 6 + 1.25L)

Cost = €18 x 6 + €12 = 108 + 12 = € 120 Non Drip Gloss :

Volume needed for 20 rooms = 1.4 x 20 = 28 L (2.5L x 11 + 375ml)

Cost = €16 x 11 + €4.5 = €180.5 So, the least amount he needs to spend is €120.

Full explanation

Let the normal price be 100 each so that we don’t need to convert it again to percentage.

Price comparison First jar — 100 Second jar — 100 + 100 = 200 (100 each)

Third jar — 100 + 100 + 25 = 225 (75 each)

Fourth jar — 100 + 100 + 25 + 25 = 250 (62.5 each)

Fifth jar — 100 + 100 + 25 + 25 + 25 = 275 (55 each)

Sixth jar — 100 + 100 + 25 + 25 + 25 + 25 = 300 (50 each)

So, the trend of average cost per jar is 100 – 100 – 75 – 62.5 – 55 – 50 The bar graph which suits most to the calculated data is the one in option C.

Full explanation

A board with a system of numbering squares is given as an example and the question asks how many numbers need to be there to create a larger board.

Since this is the square board, if we can work out how many numbers will be there for each row or each column, we can work out the total number of squares needed.

So, if we try to fill the given part of a square board in the correct way, it appears like the following.

Full explanation

The argument’s claim: Nicotine contributes to the increased blood flow rate (and thus heart disease risk) because even when taken via patches or gum (without carbon monoxide), it still raises blood flow rate — meaning it’s not just the carbon monoxide in cigarette smoke.

Assumptions are unstated things that must be true for this reasoning to work. The question asks for the one that is not assumed.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Assumed. Because if the nicotine dose via patches/gum is too different, the comparison wouldn’t be fair.

Option B : Assumed. If patches/gum also had carbon monoxide, the test wouldn’t isolate nicotine’s effect.

Option C : This is not assumed. The argument doesn’t need to assume that carbon monoxide wouldn’t raise blood flow without nicotine — only that nicotine independently can raise it too. Even if carbon monoxide also increases blood flow on its own, the tests show that nicotine independently does as well, so this isn’t a required assumption for the argument’s reasoning.

Option D : Assumed. The comparison would be invalid if nicotine absorbed via skin or gum worked differently than via lungs.

Option E : Assumed. Otherwise, the blood flow increase might be due to something else in the patch/gum.

Full explanation

Since constant screen multitasking reduces efficiency and engagement, wastes time, and distracts us even after messages are sent — to function effectively at work, we need to switch off our communication devices. Now — what’s a flaw here? A flaw is a hidden problem in reasoning where an important consideration is ignored or an alternative interpretation is possible.

Let’s check the options one by one:

Option A : Not a flaw. Whether people are willing or not doesn’t affect whether switching off would improve effectiveness.

Option B : Not directly a flaw. The argument is about distraction, not rest.

Option C : Not a flaw either. That’s more about policy — the argument is about whether it improves effectiveness if you switch off.

Option D : Yes — this is the flaw. The argument assumes switching off communication hardware would improve work effectiveness, but ignores the fact that in many jobs, being instantly reachable is crucial for effectiveness. If removing access to instant communication makes you miss vital updates or delays decisions, effectiveness might drop. That’s the key flaw.

Option E : Not a flaw. Even if it’s only younger workers, the argument’s logic about distraction still stands for those it applies to.

Full explanation

To identify the correct view, note that a square-shaped flower bed will appear with a line in the middle, while a circular-shaped one will not.

Option A: From the chair, the circular flower bed (seen without a middle line) should be the first thing visible in the middle. However, in the picture for option A, a middle line appears first, which shouldn’t happen. So, this cannot be the correct view.

Option B: This could be the view if the square-shaped flower bed is more raised than the circular one in front.

Option C: This could be the view if the circular flower bed in front is more raised than the square-shaped one behind it.

Option D: This could be the view if both the larger square-shaped flower bed and the smaller square-shaped one in the back are more raised than the circular one in front.

Option E: This could be the view if the circular flower bed in front is less raised than the large square-shaped one behind it.

Full explanation

The two broken pieces are a slanted-top piece (with one diagonal edge) and an L-shaped piece (with a right-angled step). For a candidate logo to be Fleesam’s real logo, it must be possible to split it back into exactly these two pieces along some straight cut, preserving both the diagonal edge and the L-shaped step.

In options A, B, C and E, that dividing line can be drawn: each shape can be cut into a piece with the diagonal edge and a piece with the L-shaped step, matching the two original fragments (just rotated or flipped differently in each case).

Option D’s shape, however, cannot be divided this way — there is no straight cut that splits it into a diagonal-edged piece and an L-shaped piece matching the originals, since its outline doesn’t contain a matching L-shaped step at all.

Therefore, option D could not be Fleesam’s logo.

Full explanation

The correct conclusion should be something reasonably supported by the passage as a whole — not too strong, not introducing new claims, and not an assumption.

Now, let’s check them one by one:

Option A : Too broad. The passage only mentions brain activity differences (less prefrontal cortex activity), not structural alterations.

Option B : Too strong and unsupported. The passage suggests a possible link between gaming and desensitization but says nothing about knife crime or who commits it.

Option C : Reasonable and cautious. The passage implies this through points about consequence-free experiences and reduced prefrontal activity linked to empathy and understanding consequences. This is a safe, balanced conclusion.

Option D : Too absolute. The passage doesn’t claim they cannot tell the difference — just that constant exposure may reduce the emotional weight of real-life consequences.

Option E : Policy suggestion not supported directly. The passage discusses potential implications but doesn’t propose or justify this action.

Full explanation

The main conclusion is the author’s final stance — the central claim all other points are building up to support.

Analysis of the given options Option A : This is a supporting point or premise in the argument, not the conclusion.

Option B : This is implied as a possible effect, but it’s not the author’s stance or conclusion.

Option C : Yes — this is the final position the author defends. Despite acknowledging risks, the argument concludes that freedom of the media outweighs those risks.

Option D : This is a possible middle-ground suggestion, but it’s not made in the passage.

Option E : This is a key supporting reason, not the conclusion itself.

Full explanation

William Harvey’s famous 1628 book ‘De Motu Cordis’ is about: the discovery and description of how blood continuously circulates around the body via the heart and vessels.

Full explanation

OPEC stands for:

Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries.

So the P stands for Petroleum.

Full explanation

Monet and Renoir are famously known for painting with soft brush strokes, light effects, and capturing fleeting moments, which are classic traits of Impressionism.

Full explanation

Mark Zuckerberg is famously associated with Facebook, which he founded in 2004 while at Harvard.

Full explanation

The structure that detects blood glucose changes in humans is the pancreas (specifically its islets of Langerhans).

The structure that responds is also the pancreas, by releasing insulin or glucagon accordingly.

So, the correct option is option B. Pancreas and pancreas Other options Pituitary gland and liver → pituitary doesn’t detect glucose levels.

Hypothalamus and pituitary gland → hypothalamus detects temp, hunger, but not blood glucose directly.

Adrenal gland and pancreas → adrenal’s for stress hormones.

Liver and adrenal gland → liver stores/releases glucose, but doesn’t detect.

Full explanation

Option A : Incorrect. Body cells don’t undergo meiosis in either case.

Option B : Incorrect. Sperm forms by meiosis, not mitosis.

Option C : Incorrect. Mutations can happen in both.

Option D : True — think of certain plants, fungi, or simple animals like hydra and yeast.

Option E : Incorrect. Asexual reproduction can benefit from variation too, but it mostly relies on identical copies — however, the statement about “only required for sexual reproduction” is too absolute.

Full explanation

The condition is X-linked and recessive, so the cleanest place to start is the one person you can already be completely sure about: the affected grandson at the bottom of the pedigree (the filled square). He’s male, so he has only one X chromosome, and it carries the recessive allele — that’s the only way he’s affected. That X had to come from his mother, Person 5. So Person 5 is a confirmed carrier: 100%, exactly what the table says.

Now push that certainty one step further back. Person 5 got one X from her father (Person 2) and one X from her mother (Person 1). Here’s the useful fact: for an X-linked recessive condition, an unaffected male can never be a silent carrier — he only has one X to begin with, so if he carried the allele, he’d be affected by it, not hiding it. Person 2 is shown unaffected, so his X is guaranteed allele-free: 0%, matching the table. That means the copy Person 5 definitely carries could only have come from her mother. So Person 1 isn’t a 50/50 possibility — she’s a certain carrier too, 100%, not the 50% the table gives her. That’s the actual error, and it’s exactly row 1.

The other three rows hold up under the same check. Person 2’s 0% is explained above. Person 4 is also an unaffected male, so identical reasoning applies: 0%. Person 3 is another daughter of Person 1 (now confirmed a carrier) and Person 2 (confirmed clear) — she’s guaranteed a clean X from her father, and a genuine 50/50 shot at either X from her mother, so 50% is correct for her.

Four of the five rows check out; only Person 1’s understates what’s actually a certainty. That’s why (D), row 1, is the one that does not correctly state the probability.

Full explanation

DNA template : CAC GTT CGC ATA GAC

Complementary mRNA : GUG CAA GCG UAU CUG

Among the given options, the possible complementary mRNA strand with one substitution mutation is described by option C.

Options A, B and E have T, so we can exclude these.

Option D has 3 substitution mutations, so incorrect.

Full explanation

As environmental temperatures drop, cell membranes tend to become more rigid. To maintain membrane fluidity in colder conditions, organisms — including winter wheat — increase the proportion of unsaturated fatty acids in their membranes. Unsaturated fatty acids contain C=C (carbon–carbon double bonds), which introduce kinks in the hydrocarbon chains. These kinks prevent the fatty acid chains from packing closely together, maintaining fluidity even at lower temperatures.

Thus, — C=C bonds would become more common in the membranes of winter wheat cells in colder growing conditions.

Full explanation

HIV is a retrovirus and it carries RNA as its genetic material. Once it infects a host cell, it uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA, which then integrates into the host genome. But the virus itself carries RNA, not DNA. The outer envelope of HIV is made from phospholipids derived from the host cell membrane when the virus buds off from the infected cell.

So, the correct answer is option E. 2, 3 and 4 only

Full explanation

Analysis of the given statements

Statement 1 : Yes — contributes to unidirectionality. Only the presynaptic membrane releases neurotransmitters via exocytosis into the synaptic cleft, ensuring the signal starts from this side.

Statement 2 : Does not contribute to unidirectionality. This enzyme (like acetylcholinesterase) breaks down neurotransmitters after they bind to receptors to reset the cleft for the next impulse and not to prolong the stimuli or response more than necessary. Not in the purpose of maintaining unidirectionality.

Statement 3 : Yes — contributes to unidirectionality. Only the postsynaptic membrane has receptors to detect neurotransmitters, so impulses can only pass in one direction — from pre- to post-synaptic neuron.

Statement 4 : Yes — contributes to unidirectionality. These open in response to neurotransmitter binding, allowing the impulse to continue on the postsynaptic side only, not backwards.

So, the correct statements are 1, 3 and 4.

Full explanation

1. RER : It can produce vesicles. The RER packages proteins it synthesizes into vesicles for transport to the Golgi apparatus.

2. Golgi : It can produce vesicles. The Golgi modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids into vesicles for delivery inside or outside the cell.

3. Cell surface membrane : It can produce vesicles. Via endocytosis, the cell surface membrane can form vesicles to bring substances into the cell.

So, all of the 3 structures can produce vesicles.

Full explanation

The restriction enzyme cuts at specific base pair sites : 150 bp, 250 bp and 950 bp. After complete restriction, it would result in 3 fragments with 100 bp, 200 bp and 700 bp. So, the correct option is option A.

Full explanation

It’s easy to stare at a crossing-over diagram and just accept the answer key’s numbers without ever seeing where they come from — so let’s actually trace all four chromatids through it.

What you’re looking at is a tetrad: a pair of homologous chromosomes, each already copied into two sister chromatids, so four chromatid strands are lined up together, carrying three linked genes (A/a, B/b, D/d). Two of those four strands sit on the outside of the group and never touch anything. The other two sit in the middle, close enough to physically exchange material — and the dashed line in the diagram marks exactly where that exchange (the chiasma) happens: right between the A/a locus and the B/b locus. Because the crossover sits just below A/a, only what’s below that point gets swapped; whatever allele a chromatid already has for A or a stays exactly where it is.

Now follow each of the four strands from top to bottom:

The outer strand of chromosome 1 never takes part in the exchange, so it comes out exactly as it went in — A, B, D. That’s a parental (non-recombinant) combination.

The inner strand of chromosome 1 keeps its own A above the crossover point, but below it, it’s now joined to chromosome 2’s material instead of its own, so it picks up b and d in place of its original B and D. It comes out as A, b, d — a combination that didn’t exist on either original chromosome. That’s recombinant.

The inner strand of chromosome 2 is the mirror image: it keeps its own a above the crossover, then picks up B and D from chromosome 1 below it, coming out as a, B, D — the other new, recombinant combination.

The outer strand of chromosome 2 never takes part either, so it comes out unchanged: a, b, d. The second parental combination.

Once meiosis finishes and these four chromatids end up in four separate daughter cells, you’re left with: A,B,D · A,b,d · a,B,D · a,b,d.

Two of these — A,b,d and a,B,D — are recombinant, since neither allele combination matches how the genes sat on either original chromosome. The other two are the untouched parental types. And notice that all four combinations are different from one another — even though there are only two “types” (recombinant vs parental), no two of the four actual chromatids carry an identical set of alleles.

So: recombinant daughter chromosomes = 2, and daughter chromosomes genetically distinct from each other = 4. That’s row 4 — option E.

Full explanation

The semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic valves) prevent backflow of blood from the arteries into the ventricles.

– The pulmonary semilunar valve closes when blood pressure in the right ventricle drops below the pressure in the pulmonary artery (after ventricular contraction).

– Similarly, the aortic semilunar valve closes when pressure in the left ventricle falls below the pressure in the aorta.

So — the correct option is Option C. The blood pressure in the right ventricle is less than in the pulmonary artery.

Full explanation

An image of a rough endoplasmic reticulum is given. Label 1 indicates the ribosome and label 2 indicates the ER lumen.

Ribosomes synthesize the proteins using mRNA transcript and tRNA. The synthesized protein protrudes into the ER lumen where it undergoes modification. Therefore, it can be concluded that label 1 is associated with tRNA, and label 2 is associated with polypeptides.

Full explanation

P is a typical plant cell and Q is a typical prokaryote.

For cell P, being a typical plant cell, it has the gene for RuBisCo — an important enzyme in the Calvin cycle. No plasmids are present. The outermost layer, the cell wall, is freely permeable and connected to neighboring cells through plasmodesmata. Glycogen is absent in plant cells — starch is the storage form of carbohydrate. Organelles with grana, which are chloroplasts, are present.

For cell Q, being a typical prokaryote, its cell wall is susceptible to penicillin. Centrioles, a feature of eukaryotes, are absent. No membrane-bound organelles, including the SER, are present. There is a cell wall. Both nucleus and nucleolus are absent; instead, genetic material is concentrated in a region called the nucleoid.

Among the given rows, the row that correctly describes facts for a typical plant cell and a typical prokaryote is row 1.

Full explanation

A graph relating rate of reaction and substrate concentration with 4 lines is given.

For condition 1, where the substrate concentration is varied under optimal conditions and without an inhibitor, the highest Vmax is expected. We can see that there are 2 lines which reach the highest Vmax. If we check the Km — the substrate concentration required to reach half of Vmax — it can be noted that line P has a lower Km than line Q. Since it is certain that the enzyme under optimal conditions without an inhibitor will be capable of achieving the highest Vmax and a lower Km than with an inhibitor, line P represents condition 1.

For condition 2, where the substrate concentration is varied under optimal conditions with a fixed, low concentration of a competitive inhibitor, Vmax would remain the same, whereas Km would be higher. This is best represented by line Q.

Full explanation

First of all, it must be noted that both yeast cells and animal cells are eukaryotes.

Normally, cellular respiration is carried out when there is an adequate amount of oxygen and the products are water and carbon dioxide.

When there is a limited amount of oxygen, the fermentation process takes place to continue the flow. So, after glycolysis, pyruvate enters the lactic acid fermentation in animal cells and produces lactic acid. In yeast cells, pyruvate enters the alcoholic fermentation and produces ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Therefore, X is lactate, Y is pyruvate and Z is ethanol.

Full explanation

Given:

[H⁺] = 0.1 M Formula: pH = −log₁₀[H⁺] Substituting: pH = −log₁₀[0.1] = 1

Full explanation

Reaction

Zn (s) + Pb(NO₃)₂ (aq) → Pb (s) + Zn(NO₃)₂ (aq)

Molar masses: Zn = 65 g/mol Pb = 207 g/mol

Mole of Zn =1.3 g65 g/mol= 0.02 mol

So, the theoretical moles of Pb that could be formed (1:1 ratio) is 0.02 mol.

Theoretical mass of Pb = 0.02 × 207 = 4.14 g

Percentage yield =Actual yieldTheoretical yield× 100% =3.31 g4.14 g× 100% = 80%

Full explanation

In a lead-acid battery:

Before discharge (when charged):

Positive plate: Lead dioxide (PbO₂) — here, lead has an oxidation number of +4. Negative plate: Lead metal (Pb) — here, lead has an oxidation number of 0.

After discharge (both plates): Both plates convert to lead(II) sulfate (PbSO₄) — where lead has an oxidation number of +2.

So:

Positive plate: +4 → +2 Negative plate: 0 → +2

Therefore, the correct option is:

Positive plate: 4 → 2; Negative plate: 0 → 2

That matches option B.

Full explanation

In ethene (C₂H₄), C has oxidation state of -2 and H has +1.

In (CH₂CH₂)ₙ, the oxidation state does not change — C (-2) and H (+1).

In C₂H₅Br, C has oxidation state of -2, H has +1 and Br has -1.

In C₂H₅OH, C has oxidation state of -2, H has +1 and OH has -1.

In CH₂BrCH₂Br, C has oxidation state of -1, H has +1 and Br has -1.

In C₂H₆, C has oxidation state of -3 and H has +1.

Since oxidation means the oxidation number of the central atom goes up when it changes from reactant to product. Comparing the oxidation numbers of carbon, it can be seen that the only product that has an oxidation number greater than the reactant (C₂H₄) is CH₂BrCH₂Br (Oxidation number of C : -2 to -1).

Full explanation

Reaction

2H₂​O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂

Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) decomposes to produce oxygen gas. MnO₂ is a catalyst (which affects the rate, not the final yield). The total volume of oxygen (V) depends on the total amount (moles) of H₂O₂ present. The rate (R) depends on the concentration of H₂O₂ (since a higher concentration means more reactant particles per unit volume, so more frequent collisions).

By using the 2M solution compared to the 1M solution, doubling the concentration will typically double the rate of reaction since rate is dependent on the concentration. (R: Doubled)

Doubling the concentration of H₂O₂ means twice as many moles in the same 100 cm³ and thus, twice the amount of oxygen gas will be produced. (V: Doubled)

Full explanation

The notation p⁵ means the atom’s outermost electron configuration has 5 electrons in a p subshell.

For the given atomic numbers, 7 (Nitrogen) → 1s² 2s² 2p³ → ends in 2p³ 9 (Fluorine) → 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ → ends in 2p⁵ 5 (Boron) → 1s² 2s² 2p¹ → ends in 2p¹ 8 (Oxygen) → 1s² 2s² 2p⁴ → ends in 2p⁴ 6 (Carbon) → 1s² 2s² 2p² → ends in 2p²

Full explanation

Reaction : CaCO₃​ + 2HCl → CaCl₂​+ H₂​O + CO₂​

Molar ratio:

1 mole of CaCO₃ reacts with 2 moles of HCl

Given :

Relative molecular mass of CaCO₃ = 100 g/mol

Mass of CaCO₃ = 2.0 g

Concentration of HCl = 2.0 M (mol/dm³)

Find volume of HCl needed (in cm³)

Step 1 : mole of CaCO₃ =2 g100 g/mol= 0.02 mol

Step 2 : moles of HCl needed = 0.02mol x 2 = 0.04 mol

Step 3 :

Volume of HCl needed =moleconcentration=0.04 mol2.0 mol/dm³= 0.02 dm³ = 20 cm³

Full explanation

Among the given compounds,

Al₂O₃ is the only one amphoteric compound.

Acidic compounds are Cl₂O₇, CO₂, HCl, H₃PO₄, NO₂, P₄O₁₀, SiO₂ and SO₂. (8 in total)

Alkaline compounds are K₂O, KOH, MgO and Na₂O. (4 in total)

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Primary alcohol → Carboxylic acid This requires an oxidation (since alcohol → aldehyde → carboxylic acid)

Carboxylic acid + alcohol → compound W This is the formation of an ester and compound W is an ester.

Carboxylic acid + ammonia → compound X This forms an amide. Compound X is an amide.

Therefore, Process T: oxidation; compound W: ester; compound X: amide.

Full explanation

GeH₄ : Tetrahedral, all Ge–H bonds are weakly polar but symmetrically arranged, resulting in non-polar compound. So, there is no permanent dipole.

ICl : Linear diatomic molecule with different electronegativities → polar, strong dipole SiF₄ : Tetrahedral, all Si–F bonds are polar but arranged symmetrically → non-polar CH₂Cl₂ : Tetrahedral but with 2 H and 2 Cl attached to carbon — asymmetric distribution of charge → polar, strong dipole CO₂ : Linear, two C=O bonds cancel each other out → non-polar Therefore, ICl and CH₂Cl₂ have the strongest permanent molecular dipole.

Full explanation

Firstly find the frictional force. The frictional force acting on a moving object is given by: f_friction = μ · N.

Where μ = 0.50 (dynamic friction coefficient), and N = normal force = mg = 0.40 × 10 = 4 N.

So: f_friction = μ · N = 0.5 × 4 = 2 N.

Now, the applied horizontal force is 10 N, friction opposes motion, so it is opposite to the direction of the applied force. Hence, net force is: F_net = F_applied − f_friction = 10 − 2 = 8 N.

Now, use Newton’s 2nd Law to find acceleration: F = ma ⇒ a = F/m = 8/0.40 = 20 ms⁻².

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Full explanation

Galileo thermometers work on density differences. As temperature drops, the density of ethanol (liquid) increases. The buoyant force increases, allowing the sphere to float if its density is now less than the density of the liquid.

The sphere’s own density is constant (its mass and volume don’t change). The liquid becomes denser, so the sphere is now less dense than the liquid and rises.

So, the best explanation for the rising of the sphere is that the density of the liquid has increased.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Full explanation

Firstly, convert the given line to slope-intercept form so that we can determine its slope: 4y + 3x = 8 ⇒ 4y = −3x + 8 ⇒ y = −¾x + 2.

So, the slope of the given line is m₁ = −¾.

Now, we can find the slope of the perpendicular line, which is the negative reciprocal of the slope of the given line: m₂ = −1/m₁ = −1/(−¾) = 4/3.

Use point-slope form for the line passing through (−6, 2): y − y₁ = m(x − x₁) ⇒ y − 2 = 4/3(x + 6).

Multiply through by 3 to eliminate the fraction: 3y − 6 = 4x + 24 ⇒ 3y = 4x + 30 ⇒ 3y − 4x = 30.

So, the equation of the perpendicular line is 3y − 4x = 30.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Full explanation

Let’s start by simplifying the denominator: √(1.6 × 10⁷) = √(16 × 10⁶) = 4 × 10³.

So, now the expression is: (8 × 10⁻⁵ / 4 × 10³) × (1.2 × 10³)².

Simplifying: 2 × 10⁻⁵⁻³ × 1.44 × 10⁶ ⇒ 2 × 1.44 × 10⁻⁵⁻³⁺⁶ ⇒ 2.88 × 10⁻⁸⁺⁶ ⇒ 2.88 × 10⁻².

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

Full explanation

The formula for the surface area of a sphere is A = 4πr². Let’s calculate the surface area for each sphere:

Sphere 1: radius r/2 ⇒ A = 4π(r/2)² = 4π(r²/4) = πr².

Sphere 2: radius r ⇒ A = 4πr².

Sphere 3: radius 2r ⇒ A = 4π(2r)² = 4π · 4r² = 16πr².

Sphere 4: radius 3r ⇒ A = 4π(3r)² = 4π · 9r² = 36πr².

Now add them all: πr² + 4πr² + 16πr² + 36πr² = 57πr².

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

Full explanation

Let the original price of the computer game be x. 20% of x was taken off, so the sale price is: sale price = x − 0.20x = 0.8x.

But we know that the sale price is €32. So: 0.8x = 32 ⇒ x = 32/0.8 = 320/8 = 40.

Hence, the original price of the computer game is €40.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Full explanation

When a magnet interacts with another material, the response depends on the magnetic properties of that material.

Unmagnetised magnetic materials (like soft iron or cobalt) are attracted to magnets due to induced magnetism, but they are never repelled.

Non-magnetic or electrostatically charged materials (like copper or aluminium) do not interact magnetically, so magnetic repulsion doesn’t apply to them.

Only a magnetised object (especially one with like poles facing) can show magnetic repulsion — repulsion in magnetism only occurs when two magnets interact with their like poles facing each other (e.g. North vs North or South vs South).

Thus, if the bar is repelled, it must itself be a magnet, so a bar of magnetised steel is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Full explanation

We are given a 12 V battery and three identical resistors (each 4 Ω). We need to find the readings of: ammeter X (current through one branch of the parallel section), ammeter Y (total current leaving the battery), and voltmeter Z (across the single 4 Ω resistor before the split).

The circuit has one 4 Ω resistor in series with two 4 Ω resistors in parallel.

The two 4 Ω resistors in parallel have equivalent resistance: 1/R_parallel = 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/2 ⇒ R_parallel = 2 Ω.

Total resistance: R_total = 4 Ω + 2 Ω = 6 Ω.

Total current from the battery (ammeter Y): I = V/R = 12/6 = 2 A. So, ammeter Y reads 2.0 A.

Voltage drop across the first 4 Ω resistor (voltmeter Z): V = IR = 2 × 4 = 8 V. So, voltmeter Z reads 8.0 V.

Voltage left for the parallel section: 12 V − 8 V = 4 V across the parallel combination, so each resistor in the parallel section gets 4 V: I = V/R = 4/4 = 1 A. So 1 A goes through each branch.

Since ammeter X is in one branch, it reads 1.0 A.

Final readings: X = 1.0 A, Y = 2.0 A, Z = 8.0 V.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).