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IMAT 2013 · Worked Solution

IMAT 2013 Worked Solution

All 59 questions, solved and explained — General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics. Verified line by line by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team.

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General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning

Current affairs, history, culture, logical and critical-thinking problems · 29 questions
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A significant social trend in the 20th century was for people to move away from their place of birth in order to access education and work. This gave individuals more opportunities and helped the economy by producing mobility within the workforce. The negative side of this is now being felt as more and more elderly people face the problems of old age without family members nearby to care for them. This has negative effects on the economy as well as on the individual, as more and more state funding for care is needed.

Which one of the following could be drawn as a conclusion of the above passage?

  • AThe benefits of a mobile workforce have to be compared with the costs to elderly people and the economy.
  • BElderly people are expecting the state to provide care for them rather than relying on their children.
  • CPeople should try to find education and work close to their place of birth.
  • DThe state should provide care for elderly people to make mobility of the workforce possible.
  • EPeople should make caring for their elderly parents a priority over choice of work opportunities.
Correct answer: A The benefits of a mobile workforce have to be compared with the costs to elderly people and the economy

Full explanation

Passage summary : People moving away for work and education boosted opportunities and the economy, but left many elderly without nearby family, increasing care demands and economic costs. So, this is similar to showing two sides of a coin.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : This option accurately captures the essence of the passage --- weighing the positive outcomes of workforce mobility against its negative consequences for the elderly and the economy.

Option B : The passage doesn't mention what elderly people expect.

Option C : The passage doesn't make a recommendation about what people should do. It describes a trend and its consequences but stops short of advising people to stay near home.

Option D : The passage highlights a problem, not a policy solution.

Option E : Again, the passage notes a social consequence but doesn't prescribe personal priorities or suggest that people ought to choose family care over career opportunities.

1. (Logical reasoning) Any company that wishes to sell a new drug must provide the government with details of research about its safety and possible side effects. At present, this information is confidential, but there are plans to make it available to the public. While patients are surely entitled to more information about the drugs they are prescribed, this will also inevitably make public vital details about the ingredients of certain drugs and how they are manufactured. Drug companies are naturally reluctant to release this information to their competitors. Therefore, through fear of imitators, drug companies will no longer introduce new and important drugs into the country.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?

A. There are sufficient drugs already on the market and so there is no necessity to introduce new ones.

B. The drug industry is a very competitive business and secrecy is vital if companies are to survive.

C. People may be reluctant to use certain drugs when they have fuller information about them.

D. People are better informed about the side effects of drugs abroad than they are in this country.

E. Strong patent laws prevent companies from using the information to create rival drugs.

Answer : E. Strong patent laws prevent companies from using the information to create rival drugs

Detailed explanation :

Passage summary : Plans to make drug safety research public might scare companies from launching new drugs due to fear of competitors copying vital details.

Conclusion: Drug companies won't introduce new important drugs because of fear of imitators if information is made public.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Irrelevant --- doesn't address fear of imitation or the argument's reasoning.

Option B : Strengthens the argument by supporting the idea that disclosure would be risky.

Option C : Irrelevant to companies' fear of competitors copying their products.

Option D : Not relevant to imitation fears or whether companies would stop introducing drugs.

Option E : This directly weakens the fear of imitation. If patent laws protect new drugs, competitors can't legally copy them even with access to information --- so companies wouldn't need to withhold new drugs from the market.

There is an increasing number of historical or significant buildings in the UK which are said to be 'At Risk'. Without a change in the law most of these buildings are doomed to crumble into the ground. This is because these buildings are no longer structurally sound. The exisiting strict renovation laws mean that they are too expensive or impractical for private individuals or developers to renovate or repair. There are certainly people out there who would be willing to maintain these buildings if they could use more modern and less expensive techniques and materials. Surely it is better to sacrifice some of the original building's character rather than lose the entire structure.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

  • AThere is nothing wrong with changing the character of historic buildings.
  • B'At Risk' buildings need to be renovated according to strict rules.
  • CA change in the law is needed if we hope to preserve more 'At Risk' buildings.
  • DExisting laws make 'At Risk' buildings too expensive for most developers.
  • EHistorians can learn more from buildings which have not been modernised by modern developers.
Correct answer: C A change in the law is needed if we hope to preserve more 'At Risk' buildings

Full explanation

Many historic UK buildings are decaying because strict renovation laws make repairs too expensive or impractical. If the law allowed cheaper, modern techniques, people would be more willing to maintain them. It's better to lose some original character than lose the whole building.

Main Conclusion:

A change in the law is needed if we hope to preserve more 'At Risk' buildings.

Analysis of the given options;

Option A : A supporting idea, but not the main conclusion.

Option B : Actually part of the problem, not the argument's conclusion.

Option C : This sums up the passage's main point --- that legal reform is essential for saving these buildings.

Option D : A premise supporting the conclusion, not the conclusion itself.

Option E : Not mentioned or relevant to the argument.

Many people believe that foreign travel broadens the mind and that there is some inherent benefit in spending some time in a culture different from your own. Many students are taking 'gap' years where they spend time in another country. Whilst this may offer some benefits in terms of confidence and independence, it is wrong to assume that foreign travel alone can provide this. Global travel can have negative impacts on local cultures and the environment. Home country based 'gap' projects are often seen as unglamourous but the benefit of working with different groups and cultures within our own society can be equally rewarding.

Which one of the following is the main conclusion of the above passage?

  • AForeign gap year projects must have an element of community work for them to be worthwhile.
  • BForeign travel is not the only way to gain confidence and independence.
  • CProjects within our own society can be as rewarding as foreign travel.
  • DThere is inherent benefit in spending some time abroad.
  • EIt is important that gap year students consider the impact of their travel on the communities they work in.
Correct answer: C Projects within our own society can be as rewarding as foreign travel

Full explanation

Passage summary : While many think foreign travel is beneficial for confidence and independence, it isn't the only way. It can also harm local cultures and the environment. Local projects may seem less glamorous but can be just as rewarding.

Main Conclusion: Projects within our own society can be as rewarding as foreign travel.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Not stated or implied

Option B : A supporting idea, not the main conclusion.

Option C : This is the key point the passage builds towards --- challenging the assumption that only foreign travel is valuable and promoting local projects as equally worthwhile.

Option D : Contradicts the main argument which questions this assumption.

Option E : Mentioned as a concern but not the main point.

After looking at interviews conducted with a number of adult learners, our research suggested that the learners who felt they were most successful were all highly motivated. We noticed that early success had heightened motivation in some cases and saw that both success and motivation may be due to a special aptitude for learning. We also noticed that many of those who felt they were most motivated were also learning in favourable conditions or for fun, which meant they may have become motivated since starting their classes. Though these conditions seemed persuasive, the results led us to the same conclusion. It's impossible to learn anything without motivation.

Which one of the following is NOT a flaw in the above argument?

  • AIt assumes that those who felt they were successful actually were.
  • BIt assumes that those who felt they were motivated actually were.
  • CThe research does not establish that there are no successful learners who lacked motivation.
  • DThe research is only concerned with adult learners.
  • EIt assumes that in order to be motivated you have to have a special aptitude for learning.
Correct answer: E It assumes that in order to be motivated you have to have a special aptitude for learning

Full explanation

Passage summary : Interviews with adult learners found those who felt most successful were highly motivated. Early success and favourable conditions might influence motivation, and both success and motivation might be linked to natural aptitude. Yet, the researchers conclude it's impossible to learn anything without motivation.

Now --- we're asked which one is NOT a flaw in the argument.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Flaw --- feelings of success don't always reflect real achievement.

Option B : Flaw --- self-reported motivation might not match actual motivation.

Option C : Flaw --- it fails to check for counterexamples, yet concludes motivation is essential.

Option D : Flaw --- it is mentioned that a number of adult learners are interviewed and the result is concluded based on their cases. So, this is one of a flawed assumption that leads to the conclusion.

Option E : This is NOT a flaw --- because the passage does not make this assumption.

In which modern day country was the Inca civilization centred?

  • AChile
  • BPeru
  • CBrazil
  • DEcuador
  • EBolivia
Correct answer: B Peru

Full explanation

The Inca civilization was centred in what is now modern-day Peru, with its capital at Cusco. At its height, the Inca Empire extended into parts of modern-day Ecuador, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina --- but Peru was its heartland.

A placebo is:

  • Aa type of pain killer.
  • Ba form of local anaesthetic.
  • Ca form of mild stimulant.
  • Dan inactive drug or treatment.
  • Ea sedative.
Correct answer: D an inactive drug or treatment

Full explanation

A placebo is a substance or treatment with no active therapeutic effect, often used in clinical trials as a control to test the effectiveness of new medications or treatments. It relies on the placebo effect, where patients may perceive improvements simply because they believe they are being treated.

A nationwide survey showed that the majority of people would not be willing to give up their car in favour of public transport. However, in a recent survey of people living in an area with heavy traffic problems, 76% stated that they would prefer to travel to work by public transport if the system was made more reliable. This shows that the previous findings were wrong. We should, therefore, restrict car use and start a programme of improving the nation's public transport network as soon as possible.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the argument above?

  • AIt fails to specify which types of public transport are to be improved.
  • BThe counter arguments are not explained in detail.
  • CThe statistic presented may not be representative of the whole population.
  • DIt does not consider the 24% who would not prefer to use public transport.
  • EIt fails to explain how the public transport system can be improved.
Correct answer: C The statistic presented may not be representative of the whole population.

Full explanation

Passage summary : A nationwide survey says most people wouldn't give up their car. A local survey in a traffic-heavy area says 76% would prefer public transport if it were more reliable. The argument then claims the nationwide survey was wrong based on this local result and calls for restrictions on car use and improvements in public transport.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Not essential to the flaw in reasoning.

Option B : Not required --- the main issue is with representativeness of data.

Option C : This is the best statement of flaw. The passage uses a localised survey from an area with heavy traffic problems to dismiss a nationwide survey --- which is flawed reasoning, because the preferences in one specific area (with worse traffic) might not reflect those of the entire country.

Option D : That minority doesn't invalidate the core issue --- which is using unrepresentative data.

Option E : A practical concern, but not a flaw in the reasoning about survey representativeness.

Which general famously crossed the Alps with his army?

  • AOctavius
  • BHannibal
  • CHamilcar
  • DAugustus
  • EAntony
Correct answer: B Hannibal

Full explanation

Hannibal Barca, the famous Carthaginian general, famously crossed the Alps with his army --- including war elephants --- during the Second Punic War to launch a surprise attack on Rome from the north. It's one of the most remarkable military feats in ancient history.

The headquarters of the World Health Organisation (WHO) is found in which of these cities?

  • ANairobi
  • BWashington DC
  • CRome
  • DLondon
  • EGeneva
Correct answer: E Geneva

Full explanation

The World Health Organization (WHO) has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.

A multi-storey car park has eight levels.

On the top seven levels there are eight rows of parking. Two of these rows hold 15 cars each whilst the others hold 10 cars each.

On the road level there are two rows holding 15 cars but only four rows holding 10 cars each.

The entry control system counts cars in and out. The system stops admitting cars once 90% of the total capacity is in use.

Four spaces on the road level are reserved for staff parking and these are not available to the public.

What is the maximum number of public cars which can be admitted?

  • A644
  • B500
  • C696
  • D630
  • E626
Correct answer: E 626

Full explanation

Number of cars that can be held in the top 7 levels (levels 2-8)

- 8 rows per level

- 2 rows x 15 cars = 30 cars

- 6 rows x 10 cars = 60

- Total per level = 30 + 60 = 90

- Total for 7 levels = 7 x 90 = 630

Number of cars that can be held in level 1

- 2 rows x 15 cars = 30

- 4 rows x 10 cars = 40

- Total = 30 + 40 = 70

But - 4 spaces are reserved for staff parking.

Public parking spaces = 70 - 4 = 66

Total Public Parking Spaces = 630 + 66 = 696

90% of total capacity = 0.9 x 696 = 626.4 (Max - 626)

Coffee granules are available in two jar sizes, regular and large. The regular jar contains 250 grams and costs €4.50. The large jar is 60% bigger, containing 400 grams, but at €6.30 costs only 40% more than the regular jar.

By how much per kilogram is the large jar of coffee better value for money than the regular jar?

  • A€3.60
  • B€6.00
  • C€2.25
  • D€3.15
  • E€0.90
Correct answer: C €2.25

Full explanation

REGULAR JAR

- 250g costs €4.50

- Price per kg = (4.5)/(250) × 1000 = 18 €/kg

LARGE JAR

- 400g costs €6.30

- Price per kg = (6.30)/(400) × 1000 = 15.75 €/kg

Difference in Price per kg = 18.00 - 15.75 = 2.25 €/kg

My watch is a twenty four hour digital watch, so that, for instance 4.17am appears as:

IMAT 2013 question 12 figure

and 4.17pm appears as:

IMAT 2013 question 12 figure

One morning recently I woke up, picked up my watch and saw:

IMAT 2013 question 12 figure

I panicked, thinking that I had overslept, until I realised I had picked up the watch upside down and it was only one minute past five.

At which one of the following times would the display appear the same whichever way I picked it up?

  • A5.51am
  • B5.51pm
  • C1.01am
  • D3.21pm
  • E3.51pm
Correct answer: E 3.15pm

Full explanation

The watch is a twenty four hour digital watch.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : 5.51 am If the watch is picked upside down, it would appear as 15:50 which is 3.50pm. So, this option is false.

Option B : 5.51 pm 5.51pm will be shown as 17.51 and 7 doesn't work when flipped. So, this option is false.

Option C : 1.01am If the watch is picked upside down, it would appear as 10.10. So, this option is false.

Option D : 3.21pm 3.21pm will be shown as 15.21 . It would appear as 12.51 on upside down. So, this option is false.

Option E : 3.51pm 3.51pm will be shown as 15.51. It would appear as the same numbers 15.51 on upside down. So, this is the time when the display would appear the same whichever way I picked it up.

At a society meeting, 1000 people are entitled to vote in the elections for Chairperson with a one- person-one-vote system. The election rules state if no candidate obtains more than 50% of the votes cast in the first ballot, a second ballot must be held between the top two candidates. 350 votes were cast for a particular candidate in the first ballot. Then a second ballot took place.

Under these circumstances which one of the following is possible?

  • AThe candidate won the election, came second, or came third.
  • BThe candidate either won the election or came second.
  • CThe candidate came second or third, but did not win.
  • DThe candidate came third.
  • EThe candidate definitely won the election.
Correct answer: B The candidate either won the election or came second

Full explanation

Facts

- 1000 people entitled to vote

- One-person-one-vote system

- To win in the first ballot, a candidate needs more than 50% of votes cast → more than 500 votes

- This candidate got 350 votes

- A second ballot took place (which means no one got more than 500 votes in the first)

So, What positions are possible for this candidate after the first round?

If a second ballot happened :

- This candidate with 350 votes could have:

- Had the most votes (if no one else had more than 350)

- Been second (if someone had more than 350 but less than 500)

- Or third (if two candidates had more than 350 each)

- Now --- is it possible two candidates had more than 350 votes each?

Total votes = 1000

If this candidate had 350, for two others to have more than 350 : 350 (candidate) + 351 (candidate A ) + 351 (candidate B) = 1052 which is over 1000 --- impossible. Maximum number of people who can have more than 350 is one. Meaning this candidate could only be first or second after the first round.

The table below shows the winning time for the men's 200m run in the Olympic Games since 1900, when the event was first held, until 1988.

yearsecondsyearseconds
190022.2194821.1
190421.6195220.81
190822.6195620.75
191227.1196020.62
1916\*196420.36
192022.0196819.83
192421.6197220.00
192821.8197620.23
193221.2198020.19
193620.7198419.80
1940\*198819.75
1944\*--

\* Olympics not held in these years.

What is the longest number of years for which the Olympic record stood unbroken?

  • A6
  • B16
  • C24
  • D28
  • E20
Correct answer: D 28

Full explanation

Key: look for a time that remained the best for the longest period before a new faster time appears.

From the table :

1904 --- 21.6 Broken is 1932 --- 21.2 Gap : 1932 - 1904 = 28 years

The 21.6 seconds from 1904 stood unbroken until 1932 --- 28 years.

Ever since Uranus was discovered, astronomers have thought there might be more planets in the Solar System. Because of small deviations in the orbits of Uranus and Neptune - deviations which would occur if another planet existed - some astronomers think there must be an undiscovered planet - Planet X. But these deviations cannot tell us whether Planet X exists, because they would occur if the orbits had been wrongly predicted. Since Uranus and Neptune take many decades to circle the sun, astronomers rely on old data to calculate their orbits. As this is likely to be inaccurate, the calculated orbits are probably wrong, and so Uranus and Neptune will deviate from them even if there is no Planet X.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

  • AThe use of old and inaccurate data indicates that Planet X cannot exist.
  • BAstronomers are right to think that there must be an undiscovered planet.
  • CThe deviations in the orbits of Uranus and Neptune cannot tell us whether Planet X exists.
  • DThe calculations of the orbits of Uranus and Neptune are probably wrong.
  • EUranus and Neptune will deviate from the predicted orbits whether or not Planet X exists.
Correct answer: C The deviations in the orbits of Uranus and Neptune cannot tell us whether Planet X exists

Full explanation

Summary : Some astronomers think that small deviations in the orbits of Uranus and Neptune suggest the existence of an undiscovered Planet X. But the argument claims these deviations aren't reliable evidence for Planet X because the calculations of their orbits rely on old, probably inaccurate data --- so the deviations might just be due to errors in prediction, not the pull of another planet.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : This goes too far --- the passage doesn't conclude that Planet X cannot exist, only that the deviations aren't reliable evidence for it.

Option B : The argument actually challenges this assumption by offering an alternative explanation (inaccurate data).

Option C : Correct. This perfectly captures the main conclusion --- the deviations are inconclusive evidence for Planet X due to possibly faulty data.

Option D : This is a supporting reason within the argument, not the main conclusion. It explains why the deviations aren't reliable evidence, but it isn't the final takeaway.

Option E : This is implied by the reasoning but again isn't the main conclusion. It's a consequence of using old data, not the core point the argument is trying to make.

According to a recent analysis of university entrance records, you are more likely to go to university if your name is John than if it is Wayne. Therefore, if you want your child to go to university, you are better off calling him John than Wayne.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the argument above?

  • AIt draws a general conclusion from specific evidence.
  • BIt confuses a necessary condition with a sufficient one.
  • CIt jumps to a conclusion without any evidence.
  • DIt confuses a correlation with a cause.
  • EIt fails to consider other names than Wayne or John.
Correct answer: D It confuses a correlation with a cause

Full explanation

Short summary : A recent analysis found that people named John are more likely to go to university than those named Wayne. The conclusion drawn is that naming your child John increases the chance they'll go to university.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : This is tempting because it moves from a comparison of two names to a naming decision, but the bigger issue isn't about generalizing --- it's about mistaking correlation for causation.

Option B : The argument doesn't claim one needs to be called John to go to university, just that it would supposedly help --- so this isn't the flaw.

Option C : Not quite --- there is evidence (the analysis of records). The issue lies in how the evidence is interpreted, not its absence.

Option D : Correct. The argument spots a correlation (more Johns at university than Waynes) and wrongly infers a causal link --- that naming your child John would cause them to be more likely to go to university, without considering other social, economic, or cultural factors behind the numbers.

Option E : Irrelevant --- the flaw isn't about other names being ignored; it's about the mistaken reasoning between correlation and causation.

The low level of literacy among science undergraduates is an issue across all universities. One of the biggest problems is that pupils in school spend more time perfecting their SMS text messaging and emailing skills than they do writing grammatically correct pieces of literature. It is important to get across to undergraduates that good writing matters. Employers take on scientists believing they can communicate their findings fluently and accurately. We need to deliver science graduates with these skills.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

  • AEducation is failing those who leave with poor writing skills.
  • BStudents must be helped to recognise the importance of good literacy skills.
  • CMany science graduates are unable to write in a grammatically correct way.
  • DEmployment often depends on good ability in literacy.
  • EStudents do not concentrate properly in lessons in school.
Correct answer: B Students must be helped to recognise the importance of good literacy skills

Full explanation

Summary : The passage discusses poor literacy among science undergraduates, blames habits like texting and emailing for this, and stresses the importance of good writing skills for employment. It concludes that students need to understand that good writing matters.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Not the main conclusion. This might be implied as part of the background issue, but the passage focuses more on what needs to be done now, not assigning blame.

Option B : Correct. This is exactly what the passage is arguing towards --- that undergraduates need to understand the value of strong writing skills because it affects their employment prospects.

Option C : This is part of the evidence/problem statement, not the conclusion.

Option D : True, and mentioned as support, but it's not the main takeaway. It's one reason why literacy matters.

Option E : Irrelevant --- the passage criticises their time spent on SMS and email, not attention in lessons.

My packet of washing powder claims to contain enough powder for 24 washes. This claim is based on using the plastic scoop supplied with the packet and filling it once for each wash.

Living in a soft water area I find I only need to fill the scoop three-quarters full. How many washes can I get from this packet?

  • A42
  • B18
  • C32
  • D26
  • E30
Correct answer: C 32

Full explanation

The claim: 24 washes using 1 full scoop per wash

You use : ¾ scoop per wash

So --- how many washes can you get?

Number of washes you get = (total scoops in packet )/(scoops you use per wash) = (24)/(0.75) = 32

It has recently been suggested that some degrees can be completed in two years instead of the traditional three years. But staff teaching engineering and medicine at degree level say that the current first year mostly involves getting students up to a common level of maths and physics, which in the past was achieved by high school teaching. By the end of the second year few students have reached the level of attainment that students did 40 years ago. Two year degrees are not realistic - certainly not for engineering.

Which one of the following is an assumption of the argument in the passage above?

  • ATwo year degree courses will have the same amount of teaching per year as three year courses.
  • BSchool examinations are easier now than they were 40 years ago.
  • CMaths and physics are more important elements of engineering than they were 40 years ago.
  • DEngineering students are less motivated than they were 40 years ago.
  • ETwo year degree courses will be more popular with students than three year courses.
Correct answer: A Two year degree courses will have the same amount of teaching per year as three year courses

Full explanation

Short summary : The passage argues that two-year degrees aren't realistic for engineering because students already struggle to reach older standards by the end of the second year of a three-year course. It implies that shortening the degree would make things worse.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Correct. This is an assumption because if two-year degrees compressed the same total teaching hours into fewer years, the argument would weaken.

Option B : Not necessary for the argument. The passage notes students are behind earlier standards, but doesn't assume exactly why.

Option C : Irrelevant. The issue is whether students' current preparedness allows for a shorter degree, not whether the subject content importance has changed.

Option D : No. The argument is about preparation level and course length feasibility, not motivation.

Option E : Irrelevant to the feasibility argument --- whether they're popular or not doesn't affect whether they're realistic.

One in four deaths caused by road accidents involving commercial vehicles is caused by the driver falling asleep at the wheel. The problem even affects police men and women, who are now more likely to die due to driving when tired than by physical attacks. Evidence at the scene (such as tyre marks) can tell investigators how quickly the car driver braked: late breaking would indicate lack of concentration which might be caused by tiredness. The problem with this evidence is that it is not conclusive, whereas conclusive evidence can be offered for other offences such as drink driving.

Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion of the passage above?

  • AAccidents caused by drivers falling asleep at the wheel are a greater problem than drink driving.
  • BCommercial vehicle drivers and the police are more prone to falling asleep at the wheel because of the long hours they work.
  • CThe number of hours per day that commercial drivers should be allowed to drive should be reduced.
  • DIt will not be as easy to prosecute drivers for falling asleep at the wheel as it is for drink driving.
  • EIt would be unfair to prosecute people for falling asleep at the wheel.
Correct answer: D It will not be as easy to prosecute drivers for falling asleep at the wheel as it is for drink driving

Full explanation

Short summary : The passage talks about how many road deaths involving commercial vehicles are due to drivers falling asleep, including police officers. It explains that while evidence like late braking can suggest tiredness, it's not as conclusive as evidence for drink driving, making prosecutions harder.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Not stated. The passage doesn't compare the size of the problems --- it only compares the ease of getting conclusive evidence.

Option B : Assumed maybe, but not stated in the passage. It mentions they are affected but doesn't explicitly say why.

Option C : Not mentioned --- no recommendation or policy proposal is made.

Option D : Correct. This is the logical conclusion --- the passage highlights the difficulty of proving sleep-related accidents conclusively compared to drink driving.

Option E : Not stated --- fairness isn't discussed.

Which one of these did Galileo NOT do?

  • ADiscover the movement of a pendulum produces a regular time measurement.
  • BDevelop the telescope.
  • CDesign an electric battery.
  • DDesign a thermometer.
  • EDevelop the microscope.
Correct answer: C Design an electric battery

Full explanation

The electric battery was designed by Alessandro Volta, not Galileo.

Galileo did discover the movement of a pendulum produces a regular time measurement. He significantly improved the telescope and used it for astronomical discoveries. He is credited with developing an early thermoscope, a precursor to the modern thermometer. He also contributed to the development of the compound microscope.

The pasta that I buy in the local supermarket usually costs €1.60 per packet. This week the packet is marked '€0.20 off normal price'.

In addition the following sign is on display '10% off all bills when you spend €10 or more'. Assuming that I spend over €10 altogether, how much will the packet of pasta cost?

  • A€1.26
  • B€1.24
  • C€1.30
  • D€1.12
  • E€1.18
Correct answer: A €1.26

Full explanation

Original price of pasta = €1.60

First discount (€0.20 off) = 1.60 - 0.20 = €1.40

Second discount (10% off total bill) = €1.40 - 10% of €1.40 = €1.40 - €0.14 = €1.26

A study on identical twins concluded that genes contribute roughly half of the attributes we need to be happy. People often find such studies scary, seeing something sinister about us being mere puppets of our biology. However, put in non-scientific terms, it sounds like common sense. Parents talk about how their children had different personality traits from a very young age. Perhaps it's nicer to think this is caused by something 'fluffy' like a soul - but even if that were true, why is that more reassuring than the thought that genes are responsible? Either way, you're born as you are.

Which one of the following statements is best supported as the conclusion of the passage above?

  • ARoughly half of what we need to be happy is decided by our genetic make up.
  • BWe may as well accept the idea that our potential for happiness in life is to some extent decided at birth.
  • CWhether or not you are happy in life is either determined by your soul or your genes.
  • DWhether or not you are happy in life is not something over which you yourself have any control.
  • EThe person you are at birth is the person you will be throughout your life.
Correct answer: B We may as well accept the idea that our potential for happiness in life is to some extent decided at birth.

Full explanation

Summary : A study says genes contribute about half to happiness. People find that unsettling. But this idea matches common sense. So, Even if you believe in a soul instead of genes, you're still born with a set nature.

Analysis of the given options

Option A : True, but too narrow --- it's a supporting point, not the conclusion.

Option B : Best supported conclusion --- matches the author's point that, whether genes or a soul, you're born with part of who you are.

Option C : Over-simplified and falsely limits it to a binary --- not supported.

Option D : Too extreme --- the passage doesn't say that.

Option E : Again, too strong --- the author talks about predisposition, not permanence.

Two companies have just started a round-the-clock air taxi service between Rome and Milan. They use the same flight path and fly at constant speeds at different altitudes. Planes owned by the company Alpha-Air take off from Rome every 10 minutes and take 90 minutes to reach Milan. Planes owned by the company Beta-Air take off every 5 minutes and take 60 minutes to reach Milan. Captain Johnston, who flies for Beta-Air, takes off from Rome 5 minutes after the previous Alpha-Air flight has departed.

How many Alpha-Air planes (flying from Rome to Milan) will Captain Johnston have passed as he lands in Milan?

  • A0
  • B3
  • C2
  • D1
  • E4
Correct answer: B 3

Full explanation

Facts

ALPHA air - takes off every 10 mins - takes 90 mins to arrive Milan

BETA air - takes off every 5 mins - takes 60 mins to arrive Milan

A BETA plane takes off from Rome 5 mins after the previous ALPHA plane departed. The question ask how many ALPHA planes the BETA flight have passed during the course.

To approach this question, let's assume the particular BETA flight takes off at 00:35.

Previous ALPHA flight departure time would be 00:30. Let's name the flight as Alpha 1 and the flights before it as 2,3,4,\... in order.

For BETA flight, take off time — 00:35, arrival time — 1:35

For ALPHA 1, take off time — 00:30, arrival time — 02:00 (later than beta, so beta have passed this flight along the course)

For ALPHA 2, take off time — 00:20 arrival time — 01:50 (later than beta, so beta have passed this flight along the course)

For ALPHA 3, take off time — 00:10 arrival time — 01:40 (later than beta, so beta have passed this flight along the course)

For ALPHA 4, take off time — 00:00 arrival time — 01:30 (sooner than beta, so beta didn't pass this flight along the course)

Therefore, Captain Johnston will have passed 3 ALPHA planes as he lands in Milan.

Stephen is currently involved in a long distance charity walk from Alphcaster to Omegham. He left Alphcaster 9 days ago and has just completed 60% of his journey.

He hopes to complete 60% of the rest of the walk during the next 4 days. This will leave him just 60 miles from Omegham, which he aims to complete in a further 2 days.

How far is it from Alphcaster to Omegham?

  • A375 miles
  • B250 miles
  • C300 miles
  • D225 miles
  • E450 miles
Correct answer: A 375 miles

Full explanation

Step 1 : Let the total distance be D miles.

Distance completed so far = 60% of D = 0.6D

Remaining = 40% of D = 0.4D

Step 2 : He walks 60% of the remaining distance next:

60% of 0.4D = 0.6 × 0.4D = 0.24D

Remaining after that = 0.4D − 0.24D = 0.16D

Step 3 : Set up the equation :

0.16D = 60

D = (60)/(0.16) = 375 miles

A safe has external dimensions as follows:

Width 48cm

Depth 44cm

Height 52cm

The entire safe is made of steel 4cm thick except the base which is 8cm thick. What are the internal dimensions of the base of the safe?

  • A40cm x 40cm
  • B36cm x 36cm
  • C40cm x 32cm
  • D44cm x 40cm
  • E40cm x 36cm
Correct answer: E 40cm x 36cm

Full explanation

We're finding the internal base dimensions, which means: We need to subtract the thickness of the steel from both sides (left + right, front + back).

Internal Width: External width = 48 cm Subtract 4 cm from each side (left + right): 48 − (2×4) = 40 cm

Internal Depth: External depth = 44 cm Subtract 4 cm from each side (front + back): 44 − (2×4) = 36 cm

Internal dimensions of the base of the safe = 40 cm × 36 cm

A novelty shop sells a rather unusual clock designed to puzzle users. There is only one hand, which points upwards. It has two faces. The larger hour face rotates clockwise and the smaller minute face rotates anticlockwise. Each face has one big dot, representing 12 o' clock or 0/60 minutes and 11 smaller marks counting one hour or five minute divisions. There are no numbers.

IMAT 2013 question 27 figure

What time is it when the clock looks as shown in the diagram?

  • A9:20
  • B3:20
  • C8:40
  • D3:40
  • E8:20
Correct answer: C 8:40

Full explanation

The hand is fixed pointing up, so we find where the big dots on the rotating faces are currently located.

Outer ring (Hours) — rotates clockwise:

- If we count from the big dot, the hours passed is 8 hours. (each smaller dot counts 1 hour)

Inner ring (Minutes) - rotates anticlockwise.

- If we count from the big dot, the minutes passed is 40 mins. (each smaller dot count 5 mins)

Therefore, the clock shows 8:40

The table below shows the consumer price inflation and unemployment rate for 5 countries:

Consumer price inflation % rateMarchFebruary
United States+0.4+0.3
Japan+0.2+0.5
Germany+0.1+0.1
France+0.30.0
UK+0.2+0.5
Unemployed % rateMarchFebruary
United States5.96.1
Japan3.03.0
Germany9.29.3
France12.612.6
UK9.19.2

A newspaper comparing March to February reported that: 'Unemployment has fallen but there has been a rise in the inflation rate' Which country is the statement referring to?

  • AJapan
  • BUK
  • CFrance
  • DUnited States
  • EGermany
Correct answer: D United States

Full explanation

Let's check the unemployment rate first.

The US, Germany and UK saw a fallen unemployment rate while the rest saw a higher trend. (Can exclude Japan and France from this fact)

Among three countries, it can be seen that only the US experienced a rise in inflation rate.

Therefore, the statement 'Unemployment has fallen but there has been a rise in the inflation rate' is referring to the United States.

Horrific images of the earthquake in Haiti were seen immediately all over the world, and by the next day the full extent of the damage was seen by the entire world. Clearly, the main problem was moving aid from the airport to distant areas, and with the roads largely blocked the only practical method was to use helicopters. The great nations of the world should be ashamed that food was not getting to the people who needed it, and that even a week later their relief still depended on the ability of courageous and skillful drivers to reach them in trucks.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the argument above?

  • AThe relief agencies were able to import trucks to Haiti but not helicopters.
  • BThe great nations of the world had helicopters at their disposal which could reach Haiti within a week.
  • CThere was enough food in Haiti to supply all the people in the weeks after the earthquake.
  • DThe images failed to prompt the great nations of the world into relief operations after the earthquake.
  • EThe people of Haiti were able to clear their roads within a week of the earthquake.
Correct answer: B The great nations of the world had helicopters at their disposal which could reach Haiti within a week.

Full explanation

Summary : The world saw the earthquake damage immediately. Main problem: getting aid from the airport to distant areas. Roads were blocked, so helicopters were the only practical method. Yet, food wasn't delivered effectively, and even a week later it still depended on trucks. Therefore, great nations should be ashamed --- implying they could have done more (e.g., sent helicopters).

To conclude that great nations should be ashamed for not getting aid there faster, especially via helicopters, the author must assume: "Great nations had helicopters available that could reach Haiti within a week."

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Relief agencies imported trucks but not helicopters — Too specific and not required for the conclusion.

Option B : Correct. This is the unstated premise that connects the criticism to the situation.

Option C : There was enough food in Haiti — The argument is about distribution, not food availability.

Option D : Images failed to prompt action — The argument implies action was attempted, but was insufficient.

Option E : Haitians cleared roads — Irrelevant; the argument says roads were still largely blocked.

Biology

Cell biology, genetics, molecular biology & human physiology · 14 questions
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The direct product of transcription of recombinant DNA can be:

  • Ainsulin.
  • Bmonoclonal antibodies.
  • CmRNA.
  • Dthe primary structure of a protein.
  • Ea replicate DNA molecule.
Correct answer: C mRNA

Full explanation

(Gene expression : Transcription)

Transcription is a process of copying a segment of DNA into RNA for the purpose of gene expression. Therefore, the product of transcription of a DNA should only be an RNA.

Among the given choices,

Insulin, monoclonal antibodies and primary structure of a protein are protein varieties which could only be resulted from translation of a mRNA, not from transcription.

A replicate DNA molecule could only be produced from DNA replication, not from the transcription process.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C. mRNA.

Which one of the following is found below the diaphragm in a human?

  • AHeart
  • BPulmonary vein
  • CLiver
  • DPulmonary artery
  • EAlveoli
Correct answer: C Liver

Full explanation

There are 2 main cavities in human body divided by the diaphragm

1. Thoracic cavity — above the diaphragm (mostly occupied by the lungs and bronchial tree, heart and main afferent and efferent vessels,and oesophagus)

2. Abdominal cavity — below the diaphragm (Occupied mainly by liver, Intestines, spleen and kidneys)

Among the given options, heart, pulmonary vein and artery and the alveoli (lungs) are located in the thoracic cavity, therefore, above the diaphragm and only liver is found below the diaphragm in the abdominal cavity.

Which one of the following does not contain amino acids?

  • ACell membranes
  • BAmylose
  • CViruses
  • DEnzymes
  • EAntibodies
Correct answer: B Amylose

Full explanation

Option A : Cell membrane Cell membranes are mostly made of lipids (specifically, phospholipid bilayers). However, membrane proteins (e.g. receptors, channels) are embedded throughout the membrane --- and those are made of amino acids.

Option B : Amylose It is a polysaccharide --- a long chain of glucose molecules. Therefore, no amino acids are involved.

Option C : Viruses Most viruses are made up of a protein coat (capsid), sometimes with protein enzymes inside. Proteins = made of amino acids.

Option D : Enzymes Enzymes are proteins that act as biological catalysts. They are amino acids in long folded chains.

Option E : Antibodies They are specialized proteins produced by B lymphocytes during an immune response. They are also made entirely of amino acids.

Which statement about ribosomes is NOT correct?

  • ARibosomes are involved in protein synthesis.
  • BRibosomes can be found in the cytoplasm.
  • CRibosomes can be found on rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
  • DRibosomes can have RNA associated with them.
  • ERibsosomes can carry out transcription.
Correct answer: E Ribsosomes can carry out transcription

Full explanation

Option A : correct statement. This is their primary function! Ribosomes translate mRNA into proteins by linking amino acids in the correct order.

Option B : correct statement. Ribosomes exist freely in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough ER.

Option C : correct statement. Ribosomes attached to the RER give it the "rough" appearance. These ribosomes usually synthesize proteins that are secreted or membrane-bound.

Option D : correct statement. Ribosomes are made of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins. During translation, messenger RNA (mRNA) and tRNA also associate with them.

Option E : Incorrect. transcription is the process of making RNA from DNA, and it happens in the nucleus, carried out by RNA polymerase, not ribosomes. Ribosomes perform translation, not transcription.

The diagram below shows a phospholipid.

IMAT 2013 question 34 figure

When this molecule is broken into a phosphate, glycerol and two fatty acids, the number of water molecules released is:

  • A2
  • B3
  • C0
  • D1
  • Emore than 3
Correct answer: C 0

Full explanation

When this molecule is broken into a phosphate, glycerol and two fatty acids, three bonds need to be broken. For the bonds to break, hydrolysis reaction must be carried out and 3 water molecules must be supplied, not released.

Therefore, the number of water molecules released is 0.

A section of one strand of DNA has a base sequence of: ACG-GCT-GGT-TCC

Which of the following are correct?

1. The other DNA strand would include a CGA triplet.

2. If adenine always binds with 2 H bonds to its complementary base and guanine with 3 H bonds, then each of these triplets will have a total of 8 H bonds.

3. The mRNA sequence transcribed from this DNA sequence would contain 3 uracil bases.

  • A1 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C3 only
  • D2 only
  • E1 and 2 only
Correct answer: E 1 and 2 only

Full explanation

Complementary DNA: TGC-CGA-CCA-AGG

Given DNA strand : ACG-GCT-GGT-TCC

Transcripted mRNA : UGC-CGA-CCA-AGG

Number of H bonds in each triplet (1 A-T and 2 G-C) = (1 x 2) + (2 x 3) = 2 + 6 = 8

Analysis of the given statements

Statement 1 : Correct. The complementary DNA strand contains CGA triplet.

Statement 2 : Correct as calculated above.

Statement 3 : Incorrect. mRNA sequence contains only 1 uracil base.

The family pedigree shows that boy C has a genetic condition. No other member of the family shows the same genetic condition.

IMAT 2013 question 36 figure

Which one of the following could NOT explain why boy C has the condition?

  • ASex-linked dominant condition
  • BSex-linked recessive condition
  • CBoth parents are carriers
  • DAutosomal recessive condition
  • EMutation
Correct answer: A Sex-linked dominant condition

Full explanation

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Sex-linked dominant condition This condition cannot explain the boy's inheritance of the disease because if the gene inherited is a dominant one, the parent who gives the gene must have the condition too.

Option B : Sex-linked recessive condition This could be the case if the diseased X gene is inherited from the mother while mother does not have the condition because for a recessive gene to express in female, 2 diseased alleles are required.

Option C : Both parents are carriers If it is an autosomal recessive condition, parents do not have the condition by possessing abnormal allele each while it can produce an offspring with the condition if the offspring inherited that abnormal allele from both parents.

Option D : Autosomal recessive condition Same condition as option C.

Option E : Mutation Mutation is considered as one of the possible causes of every genetic disease.

Which one of the following is not involved in defending the body against infection?

  • AAntibodies
  • BT cell
  • CBeta cell
  • DB cell
  • EPhagocyte
Correct answer: C Beta cell

Full explanation

Analysis of the given options

Option A : Antibodies are proteins produced by B cells and they bind to specific antigens on pathogens to neutralize or mark them for destruction. So, they are directly involved in fighting infections.

Option B : T cell is a type of lymphocyte that contributes to adaptive immune response. 2 main types can be divided. Helper T cells activate other immune cells and Cytotoxic T cells kill infected or abnormal cells. So, they are involved in defense.

Option C : Beta cells are cells in the pancreas that produce insulin to regulate blood sugar. It is not involved in defense. It is involved in metabolism.

Option D : B cells is another type of lymphocyte that produces antibodies and contributes to the adaptive immune response. So, it is involved in defense.

Option E : Phagocyte is a white blood cell that engulfs and digests pathogens and debris. It is a part of the innate immune system. So, it also has a role in defense.

In which of the following stages of mammalian respiration is CO2 released?

1. Glycolysis

2. Anaerobic respiration

3. Krebs cycle

  • A3 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C1 only
  • D2 and 3 only
  • E2 only
Correct answer: A 3 only

Full explanation

Glycolysis — This process occurs in the cytoplasm. No CO₂ is released. Glucose (6C) → 2 Pyruvate (3C) + 2ATP + 2NADH.

Anaerobic respiration — Also called fermentation and takes place when oxygen is not available. In yeast, pyruvate is converted to ethanol and CO₂. In animals, pyruvate is converted to lactate (no CO₂).

Kreb cycle — occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. CO₂ is released at multiple steps : Isocitrate → α-ketoglutarate (CO₂ released) α-ketoglutarate → Succinyl-CoA (CO₂ released)

A sample of DNA contains 32 % guanine.

Which answer shows the percentage of thymine in the same sample?

  • A32
  • B18
  • C23
  • D34
  • E24
Correct answer: B 18

Full explanation

To find the percentage of thymine, let's use Chargaff's rules, which state:

In double-stranded DNA: %A = %T %G = %C Total = 100%

Given : %G = 32% → so %C = 32% So G + C = 32% + 32% = 64% The remaining 36% must be A + T, and since %A = %T, we divide it equally: A = T = 36% ÷ 2 = 18%

Which of the following comes immediately after anaphase in mitosis?

  • ATelophase
  • BInterphase
  • CProphase
  • DMetaphase
  • ECytokinesis
Correct answer: A Telophase

Full explanation

Mitosis stages in order Prophase — Chromosomes condense, spindle forms. Metaphase — Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Anaphase — Sister chromatids separate to opposite poles. Telophase — Chromatids arrive at poles, nuclear envelope reforms. (Then → Cytokinesis, division of the cytoplasm)

Therefore, telophase comes immediately after anaphase.

The increase in the frequency of one phenotype in a wild population of fish could be due to:

1. an advantageous mutation.

2. increased reproductive success of individuals with that phenotype.

3. a change in the environment.

  • A3 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C1, 2 and 3
  • D2 and 3 only
  • E1 only
Correct answer: C ,2 and 3

Full explanation

1. an advantageous mutation. Introduces a new allele that gives a survival or reproductive benefit. Example: A mutation for darker scales might help fish camouflage better → increased survival → more offspring with that trait.

2. increased reproductive success of individuals with that phenotype. Even without a new mutation, if individuals already possessing the phenotype reproduce more (due to mate selection, survival, etc.), their trait will become more common.

3. a change in the environment.

Can alter selective pressures, favoring one phenotype over others. Example: If water becomes murkier, fish with certain coloration might evade predators more effectively.

Which one of the following molecules is made in both photosynthesis and respiration?

  • AGlucose
  • BReduced NADP
  • CCarbon dioxide
  • DATP
  • EOxygen
Correct answer: D ATP

Full explanation

ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) is produced in both: Photosynthesis (in the light-dependent reactions, inside chloroplasts) Cellular respiration (in glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation)

Glucose --- made in photosynthesis but broken down in respiration

Reduced NADP(NADPH) --- produced in photosynthesis, not in respiration.

Carbon dioxide --- produced in respiration, used in photosynthesis

Oxygen --- produced in photosynthesis. used in respiration.

A liver cell in the metaphase of mitosis can be identified as being eukaryotic because it has:

1. mitochondria

2. ribosomes

3. a nucleus

  • A1 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1 and 2 only
  • E1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: A 1 only

Full explanation

A eukaryotic cell is defined by the presence of a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles (e.g., mitochondria, ER, Golgi).

Mitochondria --- found in eukaryotes but not always visible in mitosis.

Ribosomes --- can be found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. So, it is not exclusive to eukaryotes.

Nucleus --- it is the key identifying feature of eukaryotes.

Chemistry

General, inorganic, organic & biochemistry · 8 questions
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Which name of the following phase changes is NOT correct?

  • ASolid to liquid = Melting
  • BGas to solid = Freezing
  • CSolid to gas = Sublimation
  • DLiquid to gas = Evaporation
  • EGas to liquid = Condensation
Correct answer: B Gas to solid = Freezing

Full explanation

The correct term for Gas → Solid is Deposition. Freezing is the change from liquid to solid.

The compound (CH3)2CHCH2NH2 can be synthesised by the following route.

IMAT 2013 question 45 figure

What types of reaction are used in stages 1, 2 and 3?

  • A1=substitution; 2=addition; 3=reduction
  • B1=substitution; 2=addition; 3=hydrolysis
  • C1=addition; 2=substitution; 3=reduction
  • D1=addition; 2=addition; 3=reduction
  • E1=addition; 2=substitution; 3=hydrolysis
Correct answer: C 1=addition; 2=substitution; 3=reduction

Full explanation

Step 1 : CH₃CH=CH₂ → CH₃CHBrCH₃ Propene (alkene) reacts with HBr → bromoalkane Type: Electrophilic addition across the C=C bond

Step 2 : CH₃CHBrCH₃ → (CH₃)₂CHCN Bromoalkane reacts with KCN → nitrile Br replaced with CN⁻ ion (Nucleophilic substitution)

Step 3 : (CH₃)₂CHCN → (CH₃)₂CHCH₂NH₂ Nitrile is reduced to primary amine Reagents: H₂/Ni or LiAlH₄ (Reduction)

Which of the following must be correct about organic isomers?

1. They have the same molecular formulae.

2. Their physical properties are very similar.

3. They have different structural formulae.

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B1, 2 and 3
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1 only
  • E1 and 3 only
Correct answer: E 1 and 3 only

Full explanation

1. They have the same molecular formulae. Correct. Isomers by definition have the same molecular formula but differ in the arrangement of atoms. For example, C₂H₆O can be ethanol or dimethyl ether.

2. Their physical properties are very similar. Not necessarily true. Some isomers (especially structural isomers) can have very different physical properties due to changes in functional groups or molecular shape. For example, Ethanol (polar, hydrogen bonding) vs. dimethyl ether (less polar) have different boiling points.

3. They have different structural formulae. Correct. Isomers differ in how atoms are connected (structural isomers) or arranged in space (stereoisomers), so their structural formulae are different.

Which of the following are correct about carbon to carbon bonds?

1. The length of carbon to carbon bonds increases in the order C≡C, C=C, C-C.

2. The strength of the C=C bond is less than twice the strength of the C-C bond.

3. The carbon atoms are joined by six electrons in the C≡C bond.

  • A2 and 3 only
  • B1 and 3 only
  • C1, 2 and 3
  • D1 and 2 only
  • E3 only
Correct answer: C 1,2 and 3

Full explanation

1. The length of carbon to carbon bonds increases in the order C≡C, C=C, C-C. Correct. More shared electrons → stronger attraction → atoms pulled closer. Correct order --- Bond length: C≡C < C=C < C--C

2. The strength of the C=C bond is less than twice the strength of the C-C bond. Correct. C--C bond energy ≈ 350 kJ/mol, C=C bond energy ≈ 610 kJ/mol So, 610 < 2 × 350 (700 kJ/mol)

3. The carbon atoms are joined by six electrons in the C≡C bond.

Correct. Triple bond = 1 sigma (σ) bond + 2 pi (π) bonds Each bond = 2 electrons 3 bonds x 2 electrons = 6 electrons shared

The positions of the main group elements in the Periodic Table are shown below:

IMAT 2013 question 48 figure

Which one of the following formulae is NOT correct?

  • AGaCO3
  • BCsNO3
  • CBeSO4
  • DSnS2
  • EBa(HCO3)2
Correct answer: A GaCO3

Full explanation

Analysis of the given options

Option A : GaCO3 Ga (Gallium) typically forms a 3⁺ ion → Ga³⁺ CO₃²⁻ is a carbonate ion. Charges 3⁺ and 2⁻ are not balanced. So, incorrect formula. Correct one would be Ga₂(CO₃)₃

Option B : CsNO3 Cs (Cesium) is Group 1, so Cs⁺ NO₃⁻ is nitrate Balanced 1:1 (Correct formula)

Option C : BeSO4 Be²⁺, SO₄²⁻ Balanced 1:1 (Correct formula)

Option D : SnS2 Sn can be Sn⁴⁺ Sn⁴⁺ + 2 × S²⁻ → total 4+ and 4− Balanced 1:1 (Correct formula)

Option E : Ba(HCO3)2 Ba²⁺, HCO₃⁻ (bicarbonate) 2 × HCO₃⁻ balances Ba²⁺ Correct formula

The following are some compounds of nitrogen: NOCl, KNO2, NO2, NO2Cl, Ca(NO3)2

What oxidation numbers are shown by nitrogen in these compounds?

  • A3, 4, 5, 6
  • B2, 3, 4, 5
  • C2, 3, 4, 5, 6
  • D4, 5, 6
  • E3, 4, 5
Correct answer: E 3,4,5

Full explanation

To find the oxidation numbers of nitrogen in the given compounds, let's evaluate each one individually:

1. NOCl Oxygen: --2, Chlorine: --1 Let nitrogen be x. x + (--2) + (--1) = 0 → x = +3

2. KNO2 Potassium: +1, Oxygen (2 atoms): --2 × 2 = --4 Let nitrogen be x. (+1) + x + (--4) = 0 → x = +3

3. NO₂ Oxygen: --2 × 2 = --4 Let nitrogen be x. x + (--4) = 0 → x = +4

4. NO₂Cl Oxygen (2): --4 Chlorine: --1 Let nitrogen be x. x + (--4) + (--1) = 0 → x = +5

5. Ca(NO₃)₂ Calcium: +2 Each nitrate (NO₃⁻): sum must be --1 Oxygen (3): --6 Let nitrogen be x. x + (--6) = --1 → x = +5

What value does c need to be so that the following equation can be balanced? 4KMnO4 + aH2SO4 +5C2H5OH → 4MnSO4 + bK2SO4 +5CH3CO2H+cH2O

  • A21
  • B11
  • C16
  • D17
  • E26
Correct answer: B 11

Full explanation

We will balance this equation element by element.

We already have: 4 KMnO₄ → 4 MnSO₄ ⇒ Mn is balanced. 4 K → b K₂SO₄ ⇒ b = 2 (since 2 K per K₂SO₄ → 2×2 = 4 K)

5 C₂H₅OH → 5 CH₃COOH ⇒ 10 C → 10 C ⇒ C is balanced.

Since b=2, there is a total 6S on the right side and therefore, a should be 6. (S is balanced)

To balance H : Ethanol (C₂H₅OH): 5 × 6 H = 30 H Acetic acid (CH₃COOH): 5 × 4 H = 20 H H2SO : 6 x 2H = 12H Hydrogen balance : 12 + 30 = 20 + 2c ⇒ 2c = 42-20 ⇒ c = 11

Check O as confirmation : 45 on left side : 45 on right side

How many atoms of hydrogen are there in 3.0kg of ethane?

[relative atomic mass: H=1, C=12; Avogadro constant = 6.0 × 1023 per mol]

  • A3.6 × 1026
  • B3.9 × 1026
  • C6.0 × 1025
  • D3.6 × 1023
  • E6.0 × 1022
Correct answer: A 3.6 × 1026

Full explanation

Given : Mass of ethane (C₂H₆) = 3.0 kg = 3000 g Relative atomic masses: C = 12, H = 1 Avogadro's constant = 6.0×1023 mol⁻¹

Step 1 : FInd the molar mass. Molar mass = 2(12) + 6(1) = 24 + 6 = 30 g/mol

Step 2 : Find the number of moles. Moles = (3000)/(30) = 100 mol

Step 3 : Each molecule of C₂H₆ has 6 H atoms Total number of H atoms: 6 atoms x 100mol x 6.0×1023 mol⁻¹ = 3.6 × 1026 atoms

Physics & Mathematics

Mechanics, electricity, thermodynamics, algebra & geometry · 8 questions
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A mass is connected to a spring and it vibrates up and down, forming a simple harmonic system. Which of the following are correct?

  • A1, 2 and 3
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C2 only
  • D3 only
  • E1 only
Correct answer: A 1, 2 and 3

Full explanation

Statements: (1) the kinetic energy of the mass is at a maximum halfway up; (2) the potential energy of the system is at a maximum at the top of the mass's motion; (3) the potential energy of the system is at a maximum at the bottom of the mass's motion.

In simple harmonic motion (SHM), energy oscillates between kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE). At the mean (equilibrium) position, KE is maximum and PE is minimum; at the extremes (top or bottom), PE is maximum and KE is zero.

In vertical SHM, the elastic potential energy stored in the spring is the same at the top and bottom (the mass oscillates symmetrically about equilibrium), so PE is maximum at both extremes — statements 2 and 3 are both correct.

The kinetic energy is maximum at the equilibrium position, which is the midpoint (halfway point) of the motion — so statement 1 is also correct.

All three statements are correct, so the answer is (A).

A uniform beam, 3.0 m long, of weight 100 N has a 300 N weight placed 0.50 m from one end. The beam is suspended by a string 1.0 m from the same end. How far from the other end must a weight of 80 N be placed for the beam to be balanced?

  • A0.75 m
  • B2.25 m
  • C1.25 m
  • D1.875 m
  • E0.125 m
Correct answer: A 0.75 m

Full explanation

Name the points on the beam: left end = A, right end = B, suspension (pivot) point = O. The suspension point is 1.0 m from A (so 2.0 m from B). The 300 N weight is 0.5 m from A → 0.5 m to the left of O. The beam's own 100 N weight acts at its centre, 1.5 m from A → 0.5 m to the right of O. The 80 N weight is placed x metres from B, so its distance from O is (2.0 − x) m.

Taking torques about the suspension point O:

Clockwise torques: due to the 80 N weight: 80 × (2.0 − x) = 160 − 80x N·m; due to the beam's own weight: 100 × 0.5 = 50 N·m.

Anticlockwise torque: due to the 300 N weight: 300 × 0.5 = 150 N·m.

For balance, clockwise torque = anticlockwise torque:

50 + 80(2.0 − x) = 150 ⇒ 50 + 160 − 80x = 150 ⇒ 210 − 150 = 80x ⇒ 60 = 80x ⇒ x = 60/80 = 0.75 m.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

In an AC (alternating current) generator, a coil of wire rotates in a magnetic field. Which of the following would change the potential difference measured by the voltmeter in the system?

  • A3 only
  • B1, 2 and 3
  • C1 and 2 only
  • D2 only
  • E1 and 3 only
Correct answer: E 1 and 3 only (use more turns of wire in the coil; change the speed of rotation)

Full explanation

Statements: (1) use more turns of wire in the coil; (2) use thicker wire; (3) change the speed of rotation.

Induced EMF in a coil is given by E = N·B·A·ω·sin(θ), where N is the number of turns, B is the magnetic field strength, A is the coil area, and ω is the angular speed.

Increasing N (statement 1) increases the induced EMF. Increasing the speed of rotation, ω (statement 3), also increases the induced EMF.

Using thicker wire (statement 2) changes the coil's resistance, not the induced voltage itself — so it does not change the EMF.

Only statements 1 and 3 are correct, so the answer is (E).

Which of the following is the equation of the circle with centre (−1.5, 0.5) and radius 3?

  • A2x² − 6x + 2y² + 2y − 13 = 0
  • B2x² + 6x + 2y² − 2y − 14 = 0
  • C2x² − 6x + 2y² − 2y − 13 = 0
  • D2x² + 6x + 2y² − 2y − 13 = 0
  • E2x² + 6x + 2y² − 2y − 23 = 0
Correct answer: D 2x² + 6x + 2y² − 2y − 13 = 0

Full explanation

The standard equation of a circle with centre (a, b) and radius r is (x − a)² + (y − b)² = r².

With centre (−1.5, 0.5) and radius 3: (x + 1.5)² + (y − 0.5)² = 9.

Expanding: x² + 3x + 2.25 + y² − y + 0.25 = 9 ⇒ x² + y² + 3x − y − 6.5 = 0.

Multiplying through by 2 (to clear the decimal and match the answer choices' form): 2x² + 2y² + 6x − 2y − 13 = 0.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

In the expressions below: g = gravitational acceleration; h = height; m = mass; R = electrical resistance; t = time; v = velocity; V = voltage. Which of the following expressions have units of power?

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B1 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1 and 3 only
  • E1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: E 1, 2 and 3 (mv²/2t; V²/R; mgh/t)

Full explanation

Expressions: (1) mv²/2t; (2) V²/R; (3) mgh/t.

Expression 1, mv²/2t, is kinetic energy divided by time — energy per unit time is power.

Expression 2, V²/R, is the standard electrical-power formula P = V²/R, so it already has units of power.

Expression 3, mgh/t, is gravitational potential energy divided by time — again energy per unit time, i.e. power.

All three expressions have units of power, so the answer is (E).

Simplify: ln(x²/4y) + ln(xy) + ln 8

  • A3ln x + 2ln 2
  • Bln[(x² + 4xy² + 32y)/4y]
  • C3ln x + 2ln y + ln 32
  • D3ln x + ln 2
  • E4ln x + ln 2
Correct answer: D 3ln x + ln 2

Full explanation

Using ln A + ln B = ln(AB): ln(x²/4y) + ln(xy) + ln 8 = ln[(x²/4y) · xy · 8].

Simplify inside the log: (x²/4y) · xy · 8 = 8x³y/4y = 2x³.

So the expression becomes ln(2x³) = ln 2 + ln(x³) = ln 2 + 3ln x.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

What is the set of values for which 12 − x² > 8 and 2x + 3 ≥ 5?

  • A1 ≤ x
  • B1 < x ≤ 2
  • C1 ≤ x < 2
  • D2 < x
  • E−1 ≤ x < 2
Correct answer: C 1 ≤ x < 2

Full explanation

Solve the first inequality: 12 − x² > 8 ⇒ 4 > x² ⇒ −2 < x < 2.

Solve the second inequality: 2x + 3 ≥ 5 ⇒ 2x ≥ 2 ⇒ x ≥ 1.

Taking the intersection of −2 < x < 2 and x ≥ 1 gives 1 ≤ x < 2.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

The diagram shows a quarter of a circle surrounded by an isosceles right triangle. The radius of the circle is r. Which one of the following expressions represents the unshaded area?

  • A(1 − π/4)r²
  • Br² − πr²/2
  • Cr² − πr/2
  • D(4 − π)r²
  • E(2 − π/4)r²
Correct answer: A (1 − π/4)r²

Full explanation

Unshaded area = area of the isosceles right triangle − area of the quarter circle.

Name the triangle ABC, right-angled at C, with AC = BC = x (the two equal sides) and AB the hypotenuse. Drop an altitude from C to AB, meeting it at D; CD is perpendicular to AB and equals the circle's radius r.

The hypotenuse AB = √(x² + x²) = √2·x.

The triangle's area using AC and BC as base/height: ½ · x · x = x²/2. Using AB and the altitude CD = r as base/height: ½ · √2x · r = rx/√2.

These are the same area, so x²/2 = rx/√2 ⇒ r = (√2 · x²)/(2x) = x/√2 ⇒ x = √2·r.

So the triangle's area = x²/2 = (2r²)/2 = r².

The quarter circle's area = ¼ · πr².

Unshaded area = r² − πr²/4 = r²(1 − π/4).

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Frequently Asked Questions

Right here — every question from the IMAT 2013 exam (General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics) is solved and explained on this page, for free, with no sign-up required.

Yes. Every calculation, chemical and biological fact was independently re-derived and checked by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team before publishing.

The IMAT is a single 100-minute test made up of General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics questions. Correct answers score +1.5, unanswered questions score 0, and incorrect answers score −0.4 (the exact weighting has varied slightly by year — always check the official rules for the year you are sitting).

The overall syllabus (General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Maths) has stayed broadly the same, but the exact number of questions, section weighting and question style have changed over the years — this 2013 paper is a great way to build core knowledge, but always pair it with recent past papers to get used to the current format.

Yes — the underlying subject knowledge and reasoning skills are directly transferable, which makes older papers like this one useful extra practice once you've worked through the most recent papers.

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