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Filter Semester 2025 Worked Solution & Answers | LOCOMOTIVE
Filter Semester 2025 · Worked Solution

Filter Semester 2025 Worked Solution

All 93 questions, solved and explained — Biology, Chemistry & Physics, across all three Filter Semester subject exams. Verified line by line by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team.

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Biology

Cell biology, genetics, anatomy & physiology · 31 questions
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Where are the hydrolases destined for the lysosomal compartment specifically recognized and modified?

  • AMultivesicular bodies
  • BIntermediate compartment
  • CSecretory granules
  • DRough endoplasmic reticulum
  • ECis-Golgi
Correct answer: E Cis-Golgi

Full explanation

Lysosomal enzymes (acid hydrolases) are first synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).

They are then transported to the cis-Golgi, where they are recognized and modified by the addition of a mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) tag.

This M6P tag acts as an address label, directing the enzymes to the lysosomes.

Without this modification, the enzymes would not be delivered to the correct destination.

The ABO blood group system is a classic example of:

  • AIncomplete dominance
  • BX-linked inheritance
  • CCodominance
  • DPolygenic inheritance
  • EIncomplete penetrance
Correct answer: C Codominance

Full explanation

The ABO blood group demonstrates codominance because the A and B alleles are both fully expressed when they are inherited together.

There are three alleles: Iᴬ → produces A antigen Iᴮ → produces B antigen i → produces no antigen Genotypes and blood groups: IᴬIᴬ or Iᴬi → Blood group A IᴮIᴮ or Iᴮi → Blood group B IᴬIᴮ → Blood group AB Ii → Blood group O Individuals with genotype IᴬIᴮ express both A and B antigens, so neither allele masks the other.

This is the definition of codominance.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Three classes of E proteins (E1, E2, E3) play a fundamental role in the ubiquitination pathway during the process of protein degradation.

In particular, E3 proteins:

  • ARecognize the proteins to be degraded and bind them to ubiquitin, marking them for degradation in the proteasome
  • BAct as activators of ubiquitin
  • CTransport ubiquitinated proteins to lysosomes for degradation
  • DTransport ubiquitin to the proteasome
  • EDirectly degrade proteins marked with ubiquitin
Correct answer: A Recognize the proteins to be degraded and bind them to ubiquitin, marking them for degradation in the proteasome

Full explanation

Ubiquitination is the process of attaching ubiquitin to proteins that need to be degraded by the proteasome.

The three enzymes involved have different roles: E1 (ubiquitin-activating enzyme): Activates ubiquitin using ATP. E2 (ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme): Carries the activated ubiquitin.

E3 (ubiquitin ligase): Recognizes the specific target protein and transfers ubiquitin from E2 to that protein.

E3 enzymes provide substrate specificity, ensuring that only the correct proteins are marked for degradation.

Once a protein has been tagged with multiple ubiquitin molecules, it is recognized and degraded by the proteasome.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

The stage of mitosis in which chromosomes align at the equatorial plate between the two poles of the spindle is called ………. while the stage in which chromosomes begin to separate is called ……….

  • AProphase, telophase
  • BMetaphase, prophase
  • CProphase, anaphase
  • DMetaphase, telophase
  • EMetaphase, anaphase
Correct answer: E Metaphase, anaphase

Full explanation

During mitosis, chromosomes pass through a series of stages in the following order: Prophase: Chromosomes condense and the mitotic spindle begins to form.

Metaphase: Chromosomes line up along the equatorial plate (metaphase plate) at the center of the cell.

Anaphase: Sister chromatids separate and are pulled toward opposite poles of the cell.

Telophase: Nuclear membranes reform around the two sets of chromosomes.

Since chromosomes align at the equatorial plate during metaphase and begin to separate during anaphase, the correct answer is E.

In the vast majority of somatic cells of an organism: 1.

The plasma membrane is less extensive than the membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum 2.

The outer nuclear membrane is part of the endoplasmic reticulum 3.

The inner mitochondrial membrane is quantitatively more extensive than the outer mitochondrial membrane.

  • AAll statements are correct
  • BOnly statements 1 and 2 are correct
  • COnly statements 1 and 3 are correct
  • DOnly statement 2 is correct
  • EOnly statement 1 is correct
Correct answer: A All statements are correct

Full explanation

Analysis of each statement Statement 1: Correct.

The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) forms a large network of membranes throughout the cell.

Its total membrane surface area is much greater than that of the plasma membrane.

Statement 2: Correct.

The outer nuclear membrane is continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).

This structural continuity allows materials to move between the nuclear envelope and the ER. Statement 3: Correct.

The inner mitochondrial membrane is folded into cristae, greatly increasing its surface area.

As a result, it is far more extensive than the smooth outer mitochondrial membrane.

This large surface area is essential because it contains the proteins involved in ATP production during cellular respiration.

Since all three statements are correct, the correct answer is A.

The maturation mechanisms of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes include:

  • ASplicing
  • BAddition of a poly(A) tail at the 3′ end of the mRNA
  • CAddition of a 7-methylguanosine cap at the 5′ end of the mRNA
  • DAll the answers are correct
  • EAlternative splicing
Correct answer: D All the answers are correct

Full explanation

Before a newly synthesized pre-mRNA becomes a mature mRNA ready for translation, it undergoes several processing steps in the nucleus: 5′ capping: A 7-methylguanosine (m7G) cap is added to the 5′ end.

This protects the mRNA from degradation and helps initiate translation.

Splicing: Introns (non-coding regions) are removed, and exons (coding regions) are joined together. 3′ polyadenylation: A poly(A) tail is added to the 3′ end, increasing mRNA stability and facilitating its export from the nucleus.

Alternative splicing: In many genes, exons can be combined in different ways, allowing a single gene to produce multiple protein variants.

Since all of these are mechanisms involved in pre-mRNA maturation, the correct answer is D.

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases:

  • AHydrolyze GTP to catalyze the bond between the amino acid and its tRNA
  • BAre present in a number equal to the various tRNAs synthesized in the cell
  • CAre processive enzymes
  • DCatalyze the bonding of the NH2 group of a specific amino acid to the 3′ -OH end of the CCA sequence of the tRNA
  • ECatalyze the bonding of the COOH group of a specific amino acid to the 3′ -OH end of the CCA sequence of the tRNA
Correct answer: E Catalyze the bonding of the COOH group of a specific amino acid to the 3′ -OH end of the CCA sequence of the tRNA

Full explanation

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases are enzymes that attach the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA, a process called tRNA charging.

The amino acid is attached by its carboxyl (COOH) group to the 3′-OH group of the terminal adenosine in the CCA sequence at the 3′ end of the tRNA. This creates a high-energy bond that will later provide the energy needed for peptide bond formation during translation.

Why the other options are incorrect: A: Incorrect.

The reaction uses ATP, not GTP. B: Incorrect.

There are about 20 aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases (one for each amino acid), not one for every different tRNA. C: Incorrect.

They are not described as processive enzymes; they charge one tRNA molecule at a time.

D: Incorrect.

The COOH group, not the NH2 group, is attached to the tRNA.

Therefore, the correct answer is E.

The “beads-on-a-string” structure shows:

  • ANaked DNA (20 nm thick)
  • BDNA wrapped around nucleosomes (30 nm thick)
  • CDNA wrapped around nucleosomes (11 nm thick)
  • DDNA wrapped around histone H1 (5 nm thick)
  • ENaked DNA (30 nm thick)
Correct answer: C DNA wrapped around nucleosomes (11 nm thick)

Full explanation

The "beads-on-a-string" structure is the least condensed form of chromatin.

It consists of: DNA wrapped around histone octamers, forming nucleosomes (the "beads").

Short stretches of linker DNA connecting adjacent nucleosomes (the "string").

This structure has a diameter of approximately 10–11 nm.

As chromatin becomes more compact, the 11 nm fiber folds into the 30 nm chromatin fiber, which is a higher level of DNA packaging.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Tip to remember: 2 nm → Naked DNA double helix. 11 nm → "Beads-on-a-string" (DNA wrapped around nucleosomes). 30 nm → More condensed chromatin fiber.

Paracrine is defined as:

  • AThe exchange of electrical signals between neurons through synapses
  • BIntercellular communication based on signaling molecules acting on cells close to the cell that releases them
  • CCommunication between viruses and bacteria
  • DIntercellular communication based on signaling molecules acting on cells much farther away than the cell that releases them
  • ECommunication based on signaling molecules acting on the same cell that releases them
Correct answer: B Intercellular communication based on signaling molecules acting on cells close to the cell that releases them

Full explanation

Paracrine signaling is a form of cell-to-cell communication in which signaling molecules act on nearby cells.

The signaling molecules diffuse over a short distance and affect neighboring target cells.

Compare the different types of signaling: Paracrine: Acts on nearby cells.

Endocrine: Hormones travel through the bloodstream to act on distant cells.

Autocrine: A cell releases signaling molecules that act on the same cell that produced them.

Synaptic: Neurons communicate across synapses using neurotransmitters.

Since paracrine signaling affects nearby cells, the correct answer is B.

A mutation that changes the codon UCA to UGA is called:

  • ATransition
  • BTranslocation
  • CMissense mutation
  • DSilent mutation
  • ETransversion
Correct answer: E Transversion

Full explanation

Compare the two codons: UCA → Serine UGA → Stop codon Only the second nucleotide changes: C → G Cytosine (C) is a pyrimidine, while guanine (G) is a purine.

A mutation that changes a pyrimidine to a purine (or vice versa) is called a transversion.

Remember: Transition: Purine ↔ Purine (A ↔ G) or Pyrimidine ↔ Pyrimidine (C ↔ T/U) Transversion: Purine ↔ Pyrimidine (A/G ↔ C/T/U) Although this mutation also converts a sense codon into a stop codon (making it a nonsense mutation), that option is not provided.

Therefore, the best answer is E.

The extracellular matrix is composed of:

  • AHistone proteins
  • BProteoglycans, glycosaminoglycans, structural proteins, and adhesion proteins
  • CPhospholipids and cholesterol
  • DTubulin molecules
  • EActin filaments
Correct answer: B Proteoglycans, glycosaminoglycans, structural proteins, and adhesion proteins

Full explanation

The extracellular matrix (ECM) is a network of molecules surrounding animal cells that provides structural support, adhesion, and signaling.

Its main components include: Structural proteins such as collagen and elastin Proteoglycans Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), which help retain water and resist compression Adhesion proteins, such as fibronectin and laminin, which connect cells to the ECM The other options describe components found elsewhere: Histones package DNA inside the nucleus.

Phospholipids and cholesterol are components of the plasma membrane.

Tubulin forms microtubules.

Actin forms microfilaments.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Considering the main structural differences between the cell walls of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, which of the following statements is correct?

  • AThe arrangement of flagella and pili
  • BThe presence of lipopolysaccharides in Gram-positive bacteria and teichoic acids in Gram-negative bacteria
  • CNone of the stated answers is correct
  • DThe different thickness of the peptidoglycan layer and the absence of the outer membrane in Gram- positive bacteria, and its presence in Gram-negative bacteria
  • EThe absence of pili and flagella in Gram-negative bacteria and their presence in Gram-positive bacteria
Correct answer: D The different thickness of the peptidoglycan layer and the absence of the outer membrane in Gram- positive bacteria, and its presence in Gram-negative bacteria

Full explanation

The main structural differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are found in their cell walls.

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, no outer membrane, and stain purple on Gram staining.

Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer, with an outer membrane, and stain pink on Gram staining.

All viruses…

  • AHave DNA as their nucleic acid
  • BInfect cells
  • CInfect only eukaryotic cells
  • DHave RNA as their nucleic acid
  • EInfect only animal cells
Correct answer: B Infect cells

Full explanation

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they must infect living cells in order to reproduce.

They cannot replicate on their own because they lack the cellular machinery needed for protein synthesis and metabolism.

The other options are incorrect because: A: Not all viruses contain DNA. Some viruses have DNA, while others have RNA genomes.

C: Viruses infect both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

For example, bacteriophages infect bacteria.

D: Not all viruses contain RNA. E: Viruses infect many organisms, including animals, plants, fungi, bacteria, and archaea.

Therefore, the only statement that applies to all viruses is that they infect cells.

The signals that determine the import and export of proteins into and out of the nucleus

  • AForm amphipathic alpha-helices with negative charges
  • BAre not removed at the end of the process
  • CBind GF sequences of the nuclear pore proteins
  • DInvolve, respectively, RAN-GAP and RAN-GEF
  • EAre recognized by proteins of the nuclear lamina
Correct answer: B Are not removed at the end of the process

Full explanation

Proteins move into and out of the nucleus using specific amino acid sequences: Nuclear Localization Signal (NLS): Directs proteins into the nucleus.

Nuclear Export Signal (NES): Directs proteins out of the nucleus.

Unlike signal peptides that target proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum, NLS and NES are not removed after transport.

They remain part of the mature protein and can be used repeatedly if the protein shuttles between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

The other options are incorrect because: A: Nuclear localization signals are typically rich in positively charged lysine and arginine residues, not negatively charged amino acids.

C: Nuclear transport receptors bind FG (phenylalanine-glycine) repeats of nucleoporins, not GF sequences.

D: Ran-GEF is mainly found in the nucleus, while Ran-GAP is mainly in the cytoplasm; the statement reverses their roles.

E: NLS and NES are recognized by importins and exportins, not by the nuclear lamina.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Chromosomes are made of

  • AOnly DNA
  • BOnly RNA
  • CDNA and lipids
  • DRNA and proteins
  • EDNA and proteins
Correct answer: E DNA and proteins

Full explanation

Chromosomes are composed primarily of: DNA, which carries the genetic information.

Proteins, mainly histones, around which DNA is wrapped to form chromatin.

Histones help package the long DNA molecules into a compact structure that fits inside the nucleus and also play an important role in regulating gene expression.

In the species Homo sapiens, disomy of chromosome Y (47,XYY) is generally associated with a …… male phenotype.

Correct answer Asymptomatic

Full explanation

Individuals with 47,XYY syndrome have one extra Y chromosome.

Most affected individuals have a normal male phenotype and are asymptomatic, meaning they do not have obvious physical abnormalities or significant health problems.

The nucleotide named dAMP is composed of a molecule of 2′ -deoxy-D-ribose, a molecule of …… and a phosphate group.

Correct answer Adenine

Full explanation

A nucleotide consists of three components: A pentose sugar A nitrogenous base One or more phosphate groups In dAMP (deoxyadenosine monophosphate): d = deoxyribose sugar A = adenine MP = one phosphate group (monophosphate) Therefore, dAMP is composed of 2′-deoxy-D-ribose, adenine, and a phosphate group.

The translocation of proteins through the mitochondrial inner membrane by the TIM23 complex is favoured by the membrane potential of the inner mitochondrial membrane because ........... charged amino acids are present in the signal sequence of the proteins to be translocated.

Correct answer positively

Full explanation

Most proteins destined for the mitochondria are synthesized in the cytosol and imported into the organelle after translation.

Proteins transported through the TIM23 complex contain an N-terminal mitochondrial targeting sequence that is rich in positively charged amino acids, especially arginine and lysine.

The inner mitochondrial membrane has a negative membrane potential on the matrix side.

This electrical gradient attracts the positively charged signal sequence, helping pull the protein through the TIM23 channel into the mitochondrial matrix.

Therefore, the missing word is positively.

In eukaryotic cells, DNA duplication occurs during the …… phase of the cell cycle.

Correct answer S

Full explanation

The cell cycle consists of four main phases: G1 (Gap 1): The cell grows and prepares for DNA replication.

S (Synthesis): DNA replication takes place.

G2 (Gap 2): The cell prepares for mitosis.

M (Mitosis): The duplicated chromosomes are separated into two daughter cells.

During the S phase, each chromosome is replicated, producing two identical sister chromatids joined at the centromere.

Therefore, DNA duplication occurs during the S (Synthesis) phase.

Newly synthesised proteins destined for …… are translocated once their synthesis is completed but before they acquire their correct three-dimensional structure.

Correct answer mitochondria

Full explanation

Most mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear DNA and synthesized on free ribosomes in the cytosol.

Unlike proteins destined for the rough endoplasmic reticulum, these proteins are imported after translation is complete (post-translational translocation).

They must remain unfolded during transport so they can pass through the TOM and TIM translocation complexes in the mitochondrial membranes.

Once inside the mitochondrion, they fold into their functional three-dimensional structure with the help of molecular chaperones.

In DNA replication, the enzyme that synthesises short RNA fragments, called primers, which serve as primers for the action of DNA polymerase, is ……

Correct answer primase

Full explanation

DNA polymerase cannot begin DNA synthesis on its own.

It can only add nucleotides to an existing 3′-OH end.

To provide this starting point, the enzyme primase synthesizes a short RNA primer that DNA polymerase can extend.

During DNA replication: Helicase unwinds the DNA double helix.

Primase synthesizes short RNA primers.

DNA polymerase extends the new DNA strand from each primer.

DNA ligase joins DNA fragments together on the lagging strand.

Therefore, the enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers is primase.

Many membrane proteins encoded by mitochondrial DNA and translated in the mitochondrial matrix are inserted into the inner mitochondrial membrane thanks to the …… translocation complex (write the acronym).

Correct answer OXA

Full explanation

Some mitochondrial proteins are encoded by mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and synthesized by mitochondrial ribosomes within the matrix.

These newly synthesized proteins are inserted into the inner mitochondrial membrane by the OXA translocation complex (also called Oxa1).

It is important to distinguish the different protein translocation systems: TOM: Transports proteins across the outer mitochondrial membrane.

TIM: Transports proteins across the inner mitochondrial membrane into the matrix or inserts some nuclear-encoded proteins into the inner membrane.

OXA: Inserts mitochondrially encoded membrane proteins into the inner mitochondrial membrane.

In mature germ cells there are …… monochromatic chromosomes.

Correct answer 23

Full explanation

Mature human germ cells (sperm and egg cells) are haploid (n), meaning they contain 23 chromosomes.

These cells are produced by meiosis, during which: Homologous chromosomes separate during Meiosis I. Sister chromatids separate during Meiosis II. As a result, each mature germ cell contains: 23 chromosomes Each chromosome consists of a single chromatid (monochromatid chromosome).

The acid …… is a macromolecule of the extracellular matrix belonging to the glycosaminoglycan family.

Correct answer hyaluronic

Full explanation

Hyaluronic acid (hyaluronan) is a glycosaminoglycan (GAG) found in the extracellular matrix (ECM).

It has several important functions: Retains large amounts of water, helping tissues resist compression.

Provides lubrication in joints.

Contributes to tissue hydration and wound healing.

Unlike most other glycosaminoglycans, hyaluronic acid is not attached to a core protein, so it is not a proteoglycan.

Therefore, the missing word is hyaluronic.

The signal sequence typically located upstream of a gene, which allows transcription to begin, is the ……

Correct answer promoter

Full explanation

The promoter is a DNA sequence located upstream (5′) of a gene.

It serves as the binding site for: RNA polymerase Transcription factors These proteins assemble at the promoter to initiate transcription.

Without a promoter, RNA polymerase cannot correctly begin RNA synthesis.

In eukaryotes, the promoter region of a gene that provides a binding site for general transcription factors, facilitating recruitment of RNA polymerase II, is called the …… box.

Correct answer TATA

Full explanation

The TATA box is a conserved DNA sequence found in the promoter region of many eukaryotic genes.

It is recognized by the TATA-binding protein (TBP), a component of the general transcription factor TFIID. Binding of TBP helps recruit: Additional general transcription factors RNA polymerase II This allows transcription to begin at the correct site.

In the process of signal transduction, an extracellular ligand binds to a specific receptor, triggering a …… of intracellular events that convert the external signal into a specific biological response.

Correct answer cascade

Full explanation

Signal transduction begins when an extracellular ligand binds to its specific receptor on the cell surface or inside the cell.

This activates a cascade of intracellular signaling events, in which one activated molecule activates the next.

These signaling cascades amplify the original signal and ultimately produce a specific cellular response, such as gene expression, Cell division, Secretion, and metabolic changes.

A cell is said to be in …… when the chromosomes are aligned at the equatorial plate.

Correct answer metaphase

Full explanation

During metaphase, chromosomes align at the equatorial (metaphase) plate in the center of the cell.

This alignment ensures that each sister chromatid is attached to spindle fibers from opposite poles before they separate.

The stages of mitosis are: Prophase – Chromosomes condense.

Metaphase – Chromosomes align at the equatorial plate.

Anaphase – Sister chromatids separate.

Telophase – Nuclear membranes reform.

During apoptosis, the cell destined to die is recognized and removed by macrophages thanks to the exposure, on the external surface of the plasma membrane, of …… , an “eat me” signal.

Correct answer phosphatidylserine

Full explanation

During apoptosis (programmed cell death), phosphatidylserine (PS) is translocated from the inner leaflet to the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane.

The exposed phosphatidylserine acts as an "eat me" signal, allowing macrophages and other phagocytic cells to recognize and engulf the dying cell.

This process removes apoptotic cells without triggering inflammation, unlike necrosis.

Phosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin are lipids highly enriched in the …… leaflet of red blood cell membranes.

Correct answer outer

Full explanation

The plasma membrane is asymmetrical, meaning its two lipid layers have different compositions.

In red blood cells: Outer leaflet: Phosphatidylcholine (PC) Sphingomyelin (SM) Inner leaflet: Phosphatidylserine (PS) Phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) This asymmetry is important for normal cell function.

For example, during apoptosis, phosphatidylserine moves to the outer leaflet, serving as an "eat me" signal for macrophages.

The frequency with which a genotype determines expression of the corresponding phenotype is defined ……

Correct answer penetrance

Full explanation

Penetrance is the proportion (or percentage) of individuals with a particular genotype who actually express the associated phenotype.

Complete penetrance: Every individual with the genotype shows the phenotype.

Incomplete penetrance: Some individuals carry the genotype but do not express the phenotype.

For example, if 100 people have a disease-causing mutation but only 80 develop the disease, the mutation has 80% penetrance.

Chemistry

General, inorganic & organic chemistry · 31 questions
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Which of the following is the chemical formula of barium sulfate?

  • ABaS
  • BBaSO4
  • CBaHSO4
  • DBaSO3
  • EBa2SO4
Correct answer: B BaSO4

Full explanation

Barium sulfate is an ionic compound composed of: Barium ion: Ba2+ Sulfate ion: SO42- To form a neutral compound, the positive and negative charges must balance: Ba2+ + SO42- → BaSO4 The other options are incorrect because:

A) BaS is barium sulfide (contains S2-, not sulfate).

C) BaHSO4 is barium hydrogen sulfate, which is not the neutral salt formed from Ba2+ and SO42-.

D) BaSO3 is barium sulfite (SO32-).

E) Ba2SO4 has an incorrect ratio of ions.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

The atomic number of an element is:

  • AThe sum of the number of protons and electrons
  • BThe sum of the number of protons and neutrons
  • CThe total number of electrons
  • DThe number of protons contained in the nucleus
  • EThe number of neutrons contained in the nucleus
Correct answer: D The number of protons contained in the nucleus

Full explanation

The atomic number (Z) is defined as the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

The atomic number: Identifies the element.

Determines the element's position in the periodic table.

Equals the number of electrons only in a neutral atom.

Do not confuse it with the mass number (A), which is: Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons

Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Acyclic alkanes are molecules that are:

  • ABranched
  • BCharacterized by geometric isomerism
  • CAromatic
  • DLinear
  • EIn which all carbon atoms are sp3 hybridized
Correct answer: E In which all carbon atoms are sp3 hybridized

Full explanation

Acyclic alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons that contain only single carbon-carbon (C–C) bonds and no rings.

Since every carbon forms four single bonds, all carbon atoms are sp3 hybridized.

The other options are incorrect because:

A) Not all acyclic alkanes are branched; they can be linear or branched.

B) Geometric (cis-trans) isomerism requires a double bond or a ring, which alkanes do not have.

C) Aromatic compounds contain benzene-like rings, not alkanes.

D) Some acyclic alkanes are linear, but many are branched, so this is not always true.

Therefore, the correct answer is E.

2-propanol, in acidic environment, can be oxidized by potassium dichromate forming:

  • AAcetone
  • BPropylene oxide
  • CAcetaldehyde
  • D1-propanol
  • EEthanol
Correct answer: A Acetone

Full explanation

2-Propanol (isopropanol) is a secondary alcohol.

When a secondary alcohol is oxidized by a strong oxidizing agent such as acidified potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7/H+), it forms a ketone.

Reaction: 2-Propanol → Acetone General oxidation patterns: Primary alcohol → Aldehyde → Carboxylic acid Secondary alcohol → Ketone Tertiary alcohol → Does not undergo oxidation under normal conditions

Which of the following amino acids is the most abundant in collagen?

  • AGlycine
  • BAlanine
  • CSerine
  • DTryptophan
  • EHistidine
Correct answer: A Glycine

Full explanation

Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human body and has a unique triple-helix structure.

Its amino acid sequence follows a repeating pattern: Gly–X–Y. where: Gly = Glycine X is often Proline Y is often Hydroxyproline Because glycine appears every third amino acid, it is the most abundant amino acid in collagen.

Its small size (it has only a hydrogen atom as its side chain) allows the three collagen chains to pack tightly together, stabilizing the triple helix.

After balancing the following reaction aCl2 + bNaOH → cNaCl + dNaClO3 + eH2O one can state that:

  • Ab = 6
  • Be = 4
  • Cc = 6
  • Da = 2
  • Ed = 2
Correct answer: A b = 6

Full explanation

Balanced equation: 3Cl2+6NaOH→5NaCl+NaClO3+3H2O The coefficients are: a = 3, b = 6, c = 5, d = 1, e = 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

In 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene there are:

  • AFour methyl groups
  • BTwo double bonds
  • CFive carbon atoms
  • DTwelve hydrogen atoms
  • EFour carbon atoms
Correct answer: D Twelve hydrogen atoms
Structural diagram of 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene showing 6 carbon atoms, 12 hydrogen atoms, 2 methyl groups, and 1 double bond
2,3-dimethyl-1-butene

Full explanation

According to the structure, the molecule contains 12 hydrogen atoms, 6 carbons, 2 methyl groups, and 1 double bond.

Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

The relationship between Gibbs free-energy change (ΔG) and the electrochemical potential (E) of a cell is:

  • AΔG = E/nF
  • BΔG = –nFE
  • CΔG = nFE
  • DΔG = –nF E°
  • EΔG = R t ln E
Correct answer: B ΔG = –nFE

Full explanation

The correct relationship between Gibbs free energy and the cell potential is: ΔG = –nFE where: ΔG = Gibbs free-energy change n = number of moles of electrons transferred F = Faraday constant (96,485 C·mol-1) E = cell potential The negative sign is important because: E > 0 (a spontaneous electrochemical cell) ΔG < 0 (a spontaneous process) Thus, a positive cell potential corresponds to a negative Gibbs free-energy change.

For standard conditions, the equation becomes: ΔG = –nF E°

The maximum number of electrons present in an orbital with quantum number (l = 1) is:

  • A6
  • B1
  • C2
  • D4
  • E3
Correct answer: C 2

Full explanation

The azimuthal (angular momentum) quantum number l = 1 corresponds to a p subshell.

A p subshell contains three orbitals (px, pᵧ, and p𝓏).

However, the question asks about an orbital, not the entire subshell.

According to the Pauli Exclusion Principle, each orbital can hold a maximum of 2 electrons, and they must have opposite spins.

Therefore, the maximum number of electrons in one orbital is 2.

Which of the following saline solutions will have a pH higher than 7?

  • AKClO4
  • BNaHCO3
  • CNaCl
  • DKHSO4
  • ENH4NO3
Correct answer: B NaHCO3

Full explanation

The pH of a salt solution depends on whether its ions react with water (hydrolysis).

Generally, a salt formed from a strong acid and a strong base usually produces a neutral solution.

A salt formed from a strong base and a weak acid usually produces a basic solution.

A salt formed from a strong acid and a weak base usually produces an acidic solution.

Let's examine each salt: KClO4: Formed from a strong acid (HClO4) and a strong base (KOH) → Neutral (pH ~ 7).

NaHCO3: Contains the bicarbonate ion (HCO3-), which acts mainly as a weak base, making the solution slightly alkaline (pH > 7).

NaCl: Strong acid + strong base → Neutral.

KHSO4: Contains HSO4-, which is acidic → pH < 7.

NH4NO3: Contains NH4+, the conjugate acid of ammonia → Acidic (pH < 7).

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids:

  • AAre all saturated
  • BAre synthesized by the liver
  • CAre all polyunsaturated
  • DAre essential components of glycerophospholipids
  • EInclude oleic acid, linoleic acid, and arachidonic acid
Correct answer: C Are all polyunsaturated

Full explanation

Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are families of polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs).

Their names indicate the position of the first double bond from the omega (methyl) end of the carbon chain: Omega-3: First double bond at the third carbon.

Omega-6: First double bond at the sixth carbon.

The other options are incorrect because: A: They are unsaturated, not saturated.

B: Essential omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids cannot be synthesized by humans and must be obtained from the diet.

D: Although they can be incorporated into glycerophospholipids, they are not essential components, since other fatty acids can also be present.

E: Oleic acid is an omega-9 monounsaturated fatty acid, so it is not an omega-3 or omega-6 fatty acid.

Which of the following saline solutions will have a pH lower than 7?

  • ANaCl
  • BKNO3
  • CKClO4
  • DNaHCO3
  • ENH4Cl
Correct answer: E NH4Cl

Full explanation

A salt solution will have a pH below 7 if it contains the conjugate acid of a weak base.

Let's examine each option: NaCl: Strong acid + strong base → Neutral.

KNO3: Strong acid + strong base → Neutral.

KClO4: Strong acid + strong base → Neutral.

NaHCO3: Strong base + weak acid → Basic NH4Cl: Weak base + strong acid → Acidic (pH less than 7)

A nucleotide is composed of:

  • AA nitrogenous base covalently linked to a pentose and to three phosphate groups
  • BA pentose linked to three phosphate groups
  • CA nitrogenous base linked to a pentose through a hydrogen bond
  • DA nitrogenous base linked to three phosphate groups
  • EA nitrogenous base covalently linked to a pentose
Correct answer: A A nitrogenous base covalently linked to a pentose and to three phosphate groups

Full explanation

A nucleotide is the basic building block of DNA and RNA. It consists of three components: A nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine, or uracil) A pentose sugar (deoxyribose in DNA or ribose in RNA) One or more phosphate groups The nitrogenous base is covalently linked to the pentose sugar, and the phosphate group(s) are also covalently attached to the sugar.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Arachidonic acid:

  • AIs an omega-6 unsaturated fatty acid
  • BHas 24 carbon atoms
  • CDerives from cholesterol
  • DIs synthesized by the liver
  • EIs an omega-3 unsaturated fatty acid
Correct answer: A Is an omega-6 unsaturated fatty acid

Full explanation

Arachidonic acid is: A 20-carbon fatty acid (not 24 carbons).

A polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid.

Synthesized in the body from the essential fatty acid linoleic acid.

A precursor of eicosanoids, including prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes.

What effect does an INCREASE in temperature have on the solubility of oxygen in water?

  • ASolubility decreases
  • BSolubility increases
  • CThe effect depends on the initial temperature
  • DNo effect on solubility
  • EIn the presence of other gases it increases
Correct answer: A

Full explanation

For most gases, solubility in water decreases as temperature increases.

When water is heated, gas molecules gain kinetic energy and escape more easily from the liquid into the atmosphere.

As a result, less oxygen remains dissolved in the water.

This is why: Warm lakes and rivers contain less dissolved oxygen than cold ones.

Fish and other aquatic organisms may experience oxygen shortages during hot weather.

With identical substituents on an unsaturated carbon atom, 1-butene does not show …… configurational.

Correct answer Isomerism

Full explanation

Configurational isomerism (also called geometric or cis-trans/E-Z isomerism) occurs in alkenes only if each carbon atom of the double bond is bonded to two different substituents.

For 1-butene: CH2=CH-CH2-CH3 The first carbon of the double bond (CH2) is attached to: 2 hydrogens.

Since it has two identical substituents (two H atoms), the molecule cannot exhibit geometric (configurational) isomerism.

As …… increases, the vapor pressure of a liquid increases.

Correct answer Temperature

Full explanation

Vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by vapor molecules when they are in equilibrium with the liquid.

As temperature increases, the molecules in the liquid gain more kinetic energy.

More molecules have enough energy to escape from the liquid surface into the gas phase, causing the vapor pressure to increase.

Therefore, the missing word is temperature.

Tyrosine can be synthesized from phenylalanine through an enzymatic reaction.

Therefore, among these amino acids, …… is not an essential amino acid.

Correct answer Tyrosine

Full explanation

An essential amino acid cannot be synthesized by the human body in sufficient amounts and must be obtained from the diet.

Phenylalanine is an essential amino acid.

Tyrosine is produced from phenylalanine by the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, so under normal conditions it does not need to be obtained directly from the diet.

Therefore, tyrosine is considered a non-essential (or more precisely, conditionally non-essential) amino acid.

The number of free amino groups present in the dipeptide Aspartic acid – Glycine is ……

Correct answer 1

Full explanation

The dipeptide Aspartic acid–Glycine consists of two amino acids joined by one peptide bond.

A peptide bond forms between: The carboxyl (-COOH) group of the first amino acid The amino (-NH2) group of the second amino acid After the peptide bond forms: The N-terminal amino group of aspartic acid remains free.

The amino group of glycine is involved in the peptide bond and is no longer free.

Therefore, the dipeptide contains one free amino group.

Tip: Every linear peptide has one free N-terminal amino group and one free C-terminal carboxyl group.

Natural proteins are polymers of …… linked by peptide bonds.

Correct answer Amino Acids

Full explanation

Proteins are biological polymers made of amino acids.

Adjacent amino acids are joined by peptide bonds, which form through a condensation reaction between: The carboxyl group (-COOH) of one amino acid The amino group (-NH2) of another amino acid Long chains of amino acids fold into specific three-dimensional structures to produce functional proteins.

In 4-ethyl-2,2-dimethylheptane there are …… carbon atoms.

Correct answer 11

Full explanation

Count the carbon atoms from the IUPAC name: Heptane = 7 carbon atoms 2,2-Dimethyl = 2 methyl groups, adding 2 carbon atoms 4-Ethyl = 1 ethyl group, adding 2 carbon atoms Total number of carbon atoms: 7+2+2=11 Therefore, the molecule contains 11 carbon atoms.

According to Boyle–Mariotte’s law for an ideal gas, P1V1 = P2V2, so the product P·V is always ……

Correct answer constant

Full explanation

Boyle–Mariotte's law states that, for a fixed amount of an ideal gas at constant temperature: P1V1=P2V2 This means that pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional: If the pressure increases, the volume decreases.

If the pressure decreases, the volume increases.

As long as the temperature and the amount of gas remain constant, the product P × V does not change.

Therefore, the missing word is constant.

In a neutral compound, the algebraic sum of the oxidation numbers of the different elements is ……

Correct answer 0

Full explanation

The oxidation number (oxidation state) represents the hypothetical charge an atom would have if all bonds were completely ionic.

A fundamental rule is: In a neutral compound, the sum of the oxidation numbers of all atoms is equal to 0.

In a polyatomic ion, the sum of the oxidation numbers equals the overall charge of the ion.

The …… (use the acronym) is a nucleotide composed of adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups.

Correct answer ATP

Full explanation

ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a nucleotide composed of: Adenine (nitrogenous base), Ribose (pentose sugar), and three phosphate groups.

ATP is the main energy currency of the cell.

According to the law of mass action, the equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction aA + bB ↔ cC + dD is defined as the ratio between …… of the molar concentrations of the products and that of the molar concentrations of the reagents, each raised to its stoichiometric coefficient.

Correct answer product

Full explanation

According to the law of mass action, the equilibrium constant is: Kc=[C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b The concentrations are multiplied together, with each concentration raised to its corresponding stoichiometric coefficient.

Thus: The numerator is the product of the concentrations of the products.

The denominator is the product of the concentrations of the reactants.

In proteins, the formation of disulfide bridges can occur due to the presence of multiple residues of the amino acid ……

Correct answer cysteine

Full explanation

Disulfide bridges are covalent bonds formed between the sulfhydryl (-SH) groups of two cysteine residues.

These disulfide bonds help stabilize the tertiary and quaternary  structures of many proteins, especially extracellular proteins such as antibodies and keratin.

Since cysteine is the only standard amino acid with a free thiol (-SH) group, it is the amino acid responsible for forming disulfide bridges.

Therefore, the missing word is cysteine.

Ammonia forms the ammonium ion through a covalent …… bond with a proton.

Correct answer dative

Full explanation

Ammonia (NH3) has a lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom.

When ammonia reacts with a proton (H+), nitrogen donates this lone pair to form a bond: NH3+H+→NH4+.

Because both electrons in the new bond are donated by the nitrogen atom, this bond is called a dative covalent bond(also known as a coordinate covalent bond).

A molecule is defined as a permanent assembly of identical or different atoms connected by …… bonds

Correct answer covalent

Full explanation

A molecule is formed when two or more atoms are held together by covalent bonds.

A covalent bond is formed when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons.

This type of bond commonly occurs between non-metal atoms.

Examples include: H2 – two hydrogen atoms joined by a covalent bond.

O2 – two oxygen atoms joined by a double covalent bond.

H2O – two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one oxygen atom.

In contrast, ionic compounds (e.g., NaCl) are made up of ions held together by electrostatic attractions rather than discrete molecules.

Ionic compounds are not called molecules.

Buffering power is maximal when the pH of the solution is …… to the pK of the weak acid.

Correct answer equal

Full explanation

A buffer solution consists of a weak acid and its conjugate base (or a weak base and its conjugate acid).

It resists changes in pH when small amounts of acid or base are added.

According to the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation: pH=pKa+log(([A-])/[HA]) The buffer has its maximum buffering capacity when: [A-]=[HA] In this case: log(1)=0 So, pH=pKa Therefore, the buffering power is greatest when the pH is equal to the pKa of the weak acid.

pH is the logarithm of the …… of the molar concentration of hydrogen ions (hydronium ions, H3O+).

Correct answer reciprocal

Full explanation

The pH of a solution is defined as the negative decimal logarithm (base 10) of the molar concentration of hydrogen ions (or hydronium ions): pH=-log[H+] where: [H+] is the molar concentration of hydrogen ions (mol/L).

The concentration measure that indicates the moles of solute present in one liter of solution is called ……

Correct answer Molarity

Full explanation

Molarity (M) is a measure of concentration defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution.

Its formula is: M=moles of solute/liters of solution

Maths & Physics

Algebra, geometry, trigonometry & mechanics · 31 questions
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A horizontal spring (of negligible mass) has attached to it a wooden block of mass m = 7 kg that oscillates with a period of π/3 seconds.

What is the spring constant k in SI units?

  • A252π
  • B126
  • C28
  • D252
  • E4
Correct answer: D 252

Full explanation

Given: m=7 kg, T=π/3 s For a mass-spring system, the period is given by: T=2π√(m/k) Rearrange the equation to solve for the spring constant: k=4π2m/T2 Substitute the values: k=4π2(7)/((π/3)2) =28π2/(π2/9)=28×9=252 N/m

Therefore, the correct answer is

D) 252.

The refractive index of a medium depends on its dielectric constant ε and magnetic permeability μ, according to the law:

  • An = 1/(ε μ)
  • Bn = ε/μ
  • Cn = √(ε μ)
  • Dn = ε μ
  • En = 1/√(ε μ)
Correct answer: C n = √(ε μ)

Full explanation

The refractive index of a medium is related to its relative dielectric constant (ε) and relative magnetic permeability (μ) by: n=√(εμ)

A horizontal cylindrical pipe of radius R and length L carries a viscous fluid with flow rate Q, under laminar flow.

In these conditions, a pressure drop ΔP is measured between the ends of the pipe.

If, keeping all other conditions the same, both the radius and the length of the pipe are doubled, then ΔP:

  • ABecomes double
  • BBecomes one eighth
  • CRemains unchanged
  • DBecomes one quarter
  • EBecomes quadruple
Correct answer: B Becomes one eighth

Full explanation

For laminar flow, Poiseuille's law states: Q=πR4ΔP/8ηL Rearranging, ΔP=8ηLQ/πR4 Thus, ΔP is proportional to L/R4 Now double both the length and the radius: L'=2L R'=2R Then, ΔP' is proportional to 2L/(2R)4=2L/16R4=1/8L/R4 Hence, ΔP'=ΔP/8 The pressure drop becomes one-eighth of its original value.

Using multiples and submultiples, it can be stated that:

  • A10-9 km = 1 dm
  • B10-9 km = 1 nm
  • C10-9 km = 1 μm
  • D10-9 km = 1 mm
  • E10-9 km = 1 cm
Correct answer: C 10-9 km = 1 μm

Full explanation

Recall that: 1 km=103 m Therefore, 10-9 km=10-9×103 m=10-6 m Since 1 μm=10-6 m, we have 10-9 km=1 μm

Applying the same force to two different bodies, the two bodies acquire:

  • AThe same acceleration
  • BThis question has no unique or correct solution
  • CAccelerations directly proportional to the masses
  • DThe same velocity
  • EAccelerations inversely proportional to the masses
Correct answer: E Accelerations inversely proportional to the masses

Full explanation

According to Newton's second law, F=ma Rearranging, a=F/m If the same force is applied to two bodies of different masses, the acceleration is inversely proportional to the mass.

A fluid is defined as incompressible:

  • AWhen inside it, at the same height, pressure does not depend on position
  • BWhen its density does not depend on temperature
  • CWhen its density remains constant even when subjected to pressure variations
  • DWhen the principle of conservation of kinetic energy applies to it
  • EWhen its viscosity coefficient is negligible
Correct answer: C When its density remains constant even when subjected to pressure variations

Full explanation

An incompressible fluid is one whose density remains essentially constant, even when the pressure changes.

This assumption is valid for most liquids because they undergo only negligible changes in volume under ordinary pressures.

The other options are incorrect because:

A) Pressure generally varies with position, even at the same height if the fluid is accelerating.

B) Density can change with temperature even for incompressible fluids.

D) Conservation of kinetic energy is unrelated to the definition of incompressibility.

E) A fluid can be incompressible even if its viscosity is significant.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

A wooden raft (density of wood: 0.8 g/cm3) with a square base of side 4 m and height 50 cm floats on water.

What percentage of the total height of the raft is submerged?

  • A10%
  • B80%
  • C50%
  • E20%
  • DNone of the proposed answers is correct
Correct answer: B 80%

Full explanation

A floating object displaces a volume of water whose weight equals its own weight.

Thus, Total volume/Submerged volume = ρ object/ ρ fluid Given: Density of wood = 0.8 g/cm3, Density of water = 1.0 g/cm3 Therefore, V submerged/ V total = 0.8/1 = 0.8 Since the raft has a uniform cross-sectional area, the same fraction applies to its height: 0.8 × 100% = 80% (Equivalently, 0.8×50cm=40cm of the 50 cm height is submerged.)

Therefore, the correct answer is

B) 80%.

Indicating by [M] a quantity with dimensions of mass, [L] a quantity with dimensions of length, and [T] a quantity with dimensions of time, what are the dimensions of a force?

  • A[M][L][T]-1
  • B[M][L]2[T]-2
  • C[L][T]-2
  • D[M][L]-1
  • E[M][L][T]-2
Correct answer: E [M][L][T]-2

Full explanation

From Newton's second law, F=ma The dimensions of the quantities are: Mass: [M] Acceleration: a=length/time2=[L][T]-2 Therefore, [F]=[M]×[L][T]-2=[M][L][T]-2

Therefore, the correct answer is

E) [M][L][T]-2.

The power used by household appliances is: • P (clothes iron) = 1 kW • P (television) = 150 W • P (washing machine) = 2.5 kW • P (electric oven) = 1500 W If they are connected to the home electric system (220 V), which appliance draws the largest current?

  • AThe clothes iron
  • BThe electric oven
  • CThe washing machine
  • DThe television
  • EThey all draw the same current
Correct answer: C The washing machine

Full explanation

The relationship between power, voltage, and current is: P=VI Rearranging, I=P/V Since all appliances are connected to the same voltage (220 V), the appliance with the greatest power draws the largest current.

According to the kinetic theory of gases, if the temperature of the molecules of a gas triples, then:

  • AIt is impossible to answer if initial and final pressures are unknown
  • BIt is impossible to answer if the initial temperature is unknown
  • CThe molecules’ average kinetic energy doubles
  • DThe molecules’ average kinetic energy triples
  • EThe molecules’ average kinetic energy becomes nine times the initial value
Correct answer: D The molecules’ average kinetic energy triples

Full explanation

According to the kinetic theory of gases, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature: Ek=3/2kT where: k is the Boltzmann constant, T is the temperature in kelvin.

If the absolute temperature triples, T'=3T, Then, Ek'=3/2k(3T)=3Ek.

Therefore, the average kinetic energy also triples.

The initial pressure is not needed because kinetic energy depends only on the absolute temperature.

The motion of a point mass in which the curvature of the trajectory and scalar velocity remain constant is:

  • AUniformly accelerated motion
  • BHelicoidal motion
  • CHarmonic motion
  • DThis question has no unique or correct solution
  • EUniform circular motion
Correct answer: E Uniform circular motion

Full explanation

The curvature of a trajectory measures how sharply the path bends.

A circle has a constant curvature, while most other paths do not.

If the scalar speed (magnitude of velocity) is also constant, then the object moves around the circle at a constant speed.

This motion is called uniform circular motion.

In uniform circular motion: the speed remains constant, the direction of velocity continuously changes, the object experiences a centripetal acceleration directed toward the center of the circle.

Which of these physical quantities is NOT transported by a sound wave propagating in a material medium?

  • AInformation
  • BPower
  • CMomentum
  • DMass
  • EEnergy
Correct answer: D Mass

Full explanation

A sound wave is a mechanical longitudinal wave that propagates through a material medium by causing particles to oscillate about their equilibrium positions.

As the wave propagates, it transfers: Energy to the medium.

Momentum, which allows sound waves to exert pressure on objects.

Power, defined as the rate at which energy is transferred.

Information, such as speech or music encoded in the wave.

However, the particles of the medium only oscillate back and forth around their equilibrium positions.

They do not travel along with the wave.

Therefore, a sound wave does not transport mass.

Given T1 and T2 respectively the temperature of the cold reservoir and the hot reservoir, in a Carnot cycle, the efficiency:

  • AEquals 1 − T1/T2, with T1 and T2 expressed in °C
  • BEquals 1 − T2/T1, with temperatures expressed in K
  • CIs greater than 1
  • DIs a negative number
  • EEquals 1 − T1/T2, with temperatures expressed in K
Correct answer: E Equals 1 − T1/T2, with temperatures expressed in K

Full explanation

The maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine operating between two thermal reservoirs is given by the Carnot efficiency: η=1-Tc/Th where: Tc = temperature of the cold reservoir, Th = temperature of the hot reservoir, and both temperatures must be expressed in kelvin (K).

Since T1 is the cold reservoir temperature and T2 is the hot reservoir temperature, η=1-T1/T2.

Temperatures cannot be expressed in degrees Celsius because the formula requires an absolute temperature scale.

The propagation speed of electromagnetic waves:

  • A350.209 km/s
  • BIs constant
  • CDepends on the refractive index of the medium in which they travel
  • DNone of the previous answers is correct
  • EDepends on the wave frequency
Correct answer: C Depends on the refractive index of the medium in which they travel

Full explanation

Electromagnetic waves travel at different speeds depending on the medium.

Their speed is given by: v=c/n, where: c=3.00×108 m/s is the speed of light in vacuum, n is the refractive index of the medium.

Thus: In a vacuum (n=1), electromagnetic waves travel at the speed of light.

In materials (n>1), they travel more slowly.

The speed does not depend on the wave frequency in a given medium (ignoring dispersion in special cases).

What is the potential difference between two points inside an isolated conductor charged with 10 nC and with a capacitance of 5 nF?

  • A0 V
  • B2 mV
  • C50 mV
  • D10 mV
  • E2 V
Correct answer: A 0 V

Full explanation

In an isolated conductor at electrostatic equilibrium, all points inside the conductor are at the same electric potential.

Therefore, the potential difference between any two points inside the conductor is ΔV=0 V.

The mechanical work of a force is defined as the …… product between the force vector and the displacement vector.

Correct answer scalar

Full explanation

The mechanical work done by a force is defined as the scalar product of the force vector and the displacement vector: W=F⋅s

A moving electric charge generates an electromagnetic field in which the electric-field vector and magnetic-field vector are always …… to each other.

Correct answer perpendicular/ orthogonal

Full explanation

In an electromagnetic wave, the electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) oscillate at right angles to each other.

They are also both perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

Therefore, the electric-field vector and magnetic-field vector are always perpendicular to each other.

The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its ……

Correct answer frequency

Full explanation

According to Planck's equation, the energy of a photon is E=hf, where: E is the photon energy, h is Planck's constant, f is the frequency.

Since h is a constant, the energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency.

An electric charge enters a region of space where a uniform magnetic field is present, with velocity orthogonal to the direction of the field.

The charge will describe a …… orbit.

Correct answer circular

Full explanation

A charged particle moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field experiences the magnetic (Lorentz) force: F=qvB, where: q is the charge, v is the particle's speed, B is the magnetic field strength.

This force is always perpendicular to the particle's velocity, acting as a centripetal force.

As a result, the particle moves in a circular path at constant speed.

When a pendulum is pushed by an external force, it begins to oscillate.

Its oscillations quickly die out once the external force stops.

This happens because forces of …… type act on the pendulum.

Correct answer resistive - dissipative

Full explanation

In reality, a pendulum experiences forces such as air resistance and friction at the pivot.

These forces dissipate mechanical energy into heat, causing the amplitude of oscillation to decrease with time.

Such forces are called dissipative (or damping) forces.

If an object is placed between the center and the focal point of a converging lens, the resulting image is …… and magnified.

Correct answer real and inverted

Full explanation

Considering "center" refers to the Center of Curvature (2f) When an object is placed between 2f and f‬ (f < do < 2f): Type: Real Orientation: Inverted Size: Magnified (larger than the object)

In an isochoric transformation, the change in internal energy ΔU coincides with the …… exchanged by the system.

Correct answer heat

Full explanation

According to the first law of thermodynamics, ΔU=Q-W, where: ΔU is the change in internal energy, Q is the heat exchanged by the system, W is the work done by the system.

In an isochoric (constant-volume) process, ΔV=0, so the work done is W=PΔV=0.

Therefore, ΔU=Q. Thus, the change in internal energy is equal to the heat exchanged by the system.

A sound wave of frequency f propagates in a medium with speed v.

Its wavelength λ is ……

Correct answer V/f

Full explanation

The relationship between wave speed, frequency, and wavelength is v=fλ.

Rearranging the equation, λ=v/f.

In wave physics, the frequency f is calculated as the inverse of the …… of a wave.

Correct answer period

Full explanation

The period (T) is the time required for one complete oscillation.

The frequency is the number of oscillations per second and is given by f=1/T. Thus, the frequency is the inverse of the period.

A wax sphere of mass 20 g slides on a frictionless surface at a constant speed of 2 m/s and collides, sticking to it, with a steel sphere of mass 40 g.

After the collision, the two spheres move together with a speed of …… m/s

Correct answer 0.667

Full explanation

Since the spheres stick together after the collision, it is a perfectly inelastic collision, and linear momentum is conserved.

Assume the steel sphere is initially at rest.

Convert the masses to kilograms: Wax sphere: m1=20 g=0.020 kg Steel sphere: m2=40 g=0.040 kg Apply conservation of momentum: m1v1+m2v2=(m1+m2)vf.

Since v2=0, (0.020)(2)=(0.020+0.040)vf. 0.040=0.060vf. vf=0.040/0.060=2/3 m/s~0.67 m/s.

To convert a pressure from Pascal (Pa) to nanoPascal (nPa), multiply the value in Pascal by 10 raised to the power of ……

Correct answer 9

Full explanation

The SI prefix nano (n) means: 1 nPa=10-9 Pa.

Therefore, 1 Pa=109 nPa.

For a fluid with density ρ = 1000 kg/m3 and g = 9.81 m/s2 at a height of 5 m, the gauge pressure at the bottom is …… Pa.

Correct answer 49050

Full explanation

The gauge pressure at a depth h is given by P=ρgh.

Given: ρ=1000 kg/m3 g=9.81 m/s2 h=5 m Substitute the values: P=1000×9.81×5=49 050 Pa.

In a horizontal pipe flows a fluid of density ρ = 103 kg/m3 which, for this problem, can be considered ideal.

The flow rate is Q = 100 cm3/s.

At point 1 the pipe section is S1 = 1 cm2, while at point 2 the section is S2 = 2 cm2.

What is the pressure difference P2 − P1, expressed in N/m2? ……

Correct answer 375

Full explanation

For an ideal fluid flowing in a horizontal pipe, Bernoulli's equation is P1+1/2ρv12=P2+1/2ρv22.

Thus, P2-P1=1/2ρ(v12-v22).

First, convert the units: Flow rate: Q=100 cm3/s=1.0×10-4 m3/s.

Areas: S1=1 cm2=1.0×10-4 m2, S2=2 cm2=2.0×10-4 m2.

Calculate the flow speeds using the continuity equation Q=Sv: v1=Q/S1=(1.0×10-4)/(1.0×10-4)=1 m/s, v2=Q/S2=(1.0×10-4)/(2.0×10-4)=0.5 m/s.

Now substitute into Bernoulli's equation: P2-P1=1/2(1000)(12-0.52) =500(1-0.25)=500(0.75)=375 Pa.

Therefore, P2-P1=375 N/m2

There are 4 μg of a certain protein dissolved in 1 mm3 of blood.

In one liter of blood, …… g of that protein will be dissolved.

Correct answer 4

Full explanation

Recall that 1 L=1000 cm3=1 000 000 mm3.

Therefore, 1 L=106 mm3.

If there are 4 μg in every 1 mm3, then in one liter there are 4×106 μg.

Since 1 g=106 μg, we obtain 4×106/106=4 g.

Therefore, one liter of blood contains 4g.

The law that states that voltage is proportional to the current through a conductor, with a proportionality constant called …… , is known as Ohm’s law.

Correct answer Resistance

Full explanation

Ohm's law states that the voltage across a conductor is proportional to the current flowing through it: V=IR, where: V is the voltage, I is the current, R is the resistance, the constant of proportionality.

Two identical conductors of 1000 Ohm each are connected in parallel, and their combination is then placed in series with a 500 Ohm conductor.

The total resistance of the connection is …… Ohm.

Correct answer 1000

Full explanation

First, calculate the equivalent resistance of the two 1000 Ω resistors in parallel: 1/Rp=1/1000+1/1000=2/1000.

Therefore, Rp=1000/2=500 Ω.

This equivalent resistance is then connected in series with the 500 Ω resistor: R(total)=500+500=1000 Ω.

Therefore, the total resistance of the circuit is 1000 Ω.

Frequently Asked Questions

Right here — every one of the 93 questions from the Filter Semester 2025 exams is solved and explained on this page, for free, with no sign-up required.

Yes. Every calculation, chemical and biological fact was independently re-derived and checked by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team before publishing, and cross-checked against the official answer key — including a couple of places where the official key itself needed correcting, which are noted in the relevant solutions.

Filter Semester is three SEPARATE exams — Biology, Chemistry, and Physics — each with 31 questions (15 multiple-choice, 16 fill-in-the-blank). Each correct answer is worth +1 point, each wrong answer -0.1, and unanswered questions 0. You need at least 18/30 in every subject to qualify — a strong score in one subject cannot compensate for a weak one in another — and the three subject scores are then summed for the national ranking.

Filter Semester 2025 tests Biology, Chemistry, and Physics only (split into three separate subject exams with their own pass mark), while IMAT is a single combined test that also covers Maths, Logical Reasoning, and General Knowledge. Both lead to Italian medical admissions, but through different national routes.

Yes, for the Biology, Chemistry, and Physics sections specifically — the subject matter overlaps heavily, so practising these papers alongside IMAT past papers is a useful way to build those core skills, though you'll still need separate practice for IMAT's Maths, Logic, and General Knowledge sections.

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