We’ve developed the first-ever complete set of worked solutions for the IMAT 2025 exam, carefully designed to support students aiming to succeed in the IMAT 2026. These solutions follow the official 2025 exam structure, assessment style, and offer detailed, step-by-step explanations for every question. The IMAT 2025 included 9 questions in logical reasoning, problem-solving, and reading comprehension, 23 in biology, 15 in chemistry, and 13 in mathematics and physics. Whether you’re reviewing past papers or building confidence for your upcoming exam, this resource is your ultimate guide to mastering the IMAT.
Correct Answer: Using this medication could lead to serious kidney problems
Key points:
1) Yellowing of skin/eyes → liver damage/jaundice
2) Fever, rash, kidney enlargement → severe kidney inflammation
3) Sometimes accompanied by painful urination and lower back pain → may progress to kidney failure
Option A: Incorrect. Text says “may” occur, frequency unknown → not always.
Option B: Correct. Text explicitly mentions kidney enlargement, inflammation, and potential kidney failure.
Option C: No mention of the pancreas in the excerpt.
Option D: Text mentions painful urination, so this statement is false.
Option E: The text does not mention any benefit for patients with kidney failure.
Correct Answer: The pandemic ensured the growth of the Apulian digital sector because companies in the sector transformed into digital companies.
Key points:
1) Apulian ICT sector recovering after 2020 decline
2) Growth hindered by a shortage of trained professionals
3) Exprivia revenue ↑ 5.4%, profitability ↑
4) Gianni Sebastiano: “The more digitalization you put into processes, the more you impact efficiency and costs: this is the great lesson of the pandemic.”
5) Companies are revising processes; the pandemic highlighted the importance of digitalization
Analysis of the given options (We need to choose the incorrect statement)
Option A: Correct: text explicitly mentions process revision, improving efficiency and profitability.
Option B: Correct: text mentions shortage of professionals but also reports profitability growth.
Option C: Not correct: the pandemic highlighted the importance of digitalization, but it did not directly ensure growth or transform companies automatically. Growth was due to process revision and other factors.
Option D: Correct: text says “this is the great lesson of the pandemic,” implying the pandemic pushed companies to digitalize.
Option E: Correct: process digitalization improves efficiency and profitability → contributes to growth.
Correct Answer: Crocodile
Key points:
1) The animal kills a man, then weeps for him with tears and lamentation, then devours him.
2) Leonardo uses it as a metaphor for hypocrisy: outward tears, inward cruelty.
Option A: Crocodile – correct. “Crocodile tears” = idiom for fake or hypocritical sorrow. Matches the description perfectly: outward weeping, inward cruelty.
Option B: Lions kill prey but don’t weep afterward; no known association with hypocrisy.
Option C: Panther - No cultural or historical reference to crying after killing.
Option D: Tigers are fierce predators, but do not weep after killing.
Option E: Boas constrict prey silently; no tears or lamentation.
Correct Answer: Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease and Alzheimer’s are diseases whose diagnoses can be confused with each other
Key points:
1) Kuru, discovered by Vincent Zigas in 1955, is caused by eating the brains of deceased relatives.
2) Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) resembles kuru, not limited to New Guinea, and is sometimes confused with Alzheimer’s.
3) Both kuru and CJD are caused by prions, infectious proteins present even after death.
Analysis of the given options:
Option A: Incorrect. Alzheimer’s is a distinct disease, sometimes confused with CJD, but not a progression of it.
Option B: Incorrect. Zigas discovered the cause (practice of eating brains), not a cure.
Option C: Incorrect: CJD is not limited to New Guinea; only kuru is linked to that practice.
Option D: Incorrect: prion = infectious protein, not a bacterium.
Option E: Correct. Text: CJD “is sometimes confused with diseases like Alzheimer’s.” Kuru and CJD have overlapping symptoms → diagnostic confusion is possible.
Correct Answer: At least one prime number exists.
Detailed explanation:
Given statement: “The number two is a prime number.”
The statement asserts the existence of at least one prime number: 2. Nothing in the statement says anything about other numbers. (We know there are other prime numbers but in solving questions like this, we only consider what is written in the question. )
Exclusion of other options
Option B: Contradicted by the given statement. So, incorrect.
Option C: Not deducible: the statement says nothing about numbers other than 2.
Option D: Contradicted by 2 being prime.
Option E: Not deducible; statement only mentions 2.
Excluding the other options, the correct option is A.
Correct Answer: Today is not Saturday.
Given statements
1. If today is Saturday, then I am a philosopher.
2. I am not a philosopher.
So, deduction would be that today is not Saturday (Option B - correct); it could be any day of the week except Saturday (Option A and C - incorrect). Statement 2 says explicitly that I am not a philosopher. Therefore, option D can be excluded.
Correct Answer: Daniela is seated to the right of Carlo.
Given :
1) Square table → 4 sides → 4 people.
2) People: Alberto (A), Beatrice (B), Carlo (C), Daniela (D).
3) Alberto (A) is to the left of Beatrice (B).
4) Alberto is not to the right of Carlo (C).
Analysis of the given options:
Option A: Correct.
Option B: Incorrect because Carlo is seated across from Alberto.
Option C: Incorrect because Daniela is seated to the left of Alberto.
Option D: Incorrect. Alberto is seated to the left of Beatrice.
Option E: Incorrect. Beatrice is seated across from Daniela.
Correct Answer: The green pill is in the blue box, the red pill is in the green box, and the blue pill is in the red box.
Given:
There are 3 colored pills placed in 3 colored boxes. No pill is in the box of its own colour (derangement).
1) Blue pill is NOT in the green box. It also cannot be in a blue box according to the rule. So, the blue pill must be in the red box.
2) The green pill cannot be in the green box. And the red box is occupied by the blue pill, so green pill must be in the blue box.
3) That leaves the red pill to go to the green box
Result (pill → box):
• Blue pill → red box
• Green pill → blue box
• Red pill → green box
This matches option E.
Correct Answer: 4:45 PM
Clock shows 3:00 PM (hour hand at 3, minute hand at 12).
One full rotation of the minute hand equals 60 minutes, which is equivalent to 1 hour.
So, 1.75 rotations = 1 hour 45 minutes.
3:00 PM + 1 h 45 min = 4:45 PM
Correct Answer: A
During lactic acid fermentation, pyruvate (the end product of glycolysis) serves as the final electron acceptor. It is directly reduced by NADH to form lactate as the end product. This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase. Importantly, the process regenerates NAD⁺ from NADH, allowing glycolysis to continue producing ATP under anaerobic conditions. Unlike alcoholic fermentation, no CO₂ is released during this pathway, since pyruvate is reduced rather than decarboxylated. This mechanism is especially significant in muscle cells during intense exercise when oxygen availability is low, and also in certain microorganisms that rely on fermentation. Thus, the correct answer is Option A.
Correct Answer: C
Glycolysis is a 10-step pathway that occurs in the cytoplasm. Overall, for one glucose molecule, 2 ATP molecules, 2 NADH molecules, and two pyruvates are formed.
Analysis of the given options:
Option A: Incorrect. Phosphofructokinase catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (Kinase in the enzyme name refers to the addition of a phosphate group to a substrate). No step directly converts fructose-1,6-diphosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP).
Option B: Incorrect. Triose phosphate isomerase catalyses the conversion of DHAP to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, which are isomers of each other.
Option C: Correct. During the steps of glycolysis, one glucose molecule is broken down, and 2 NAD+ molecules are reduced to NADH, transferring high-energy electrons for later ATP production in cellular respiration.
Option D: Incorrect. The glycolysis pathway does not contain a carbon reduction step. Glucose, a 6-carbon molecule, is converted into 2 pyruvates (3-carbon molecules) without any CO2 release.
Option E: Incorrect. No FADH2 production occurs in the glycolysis pathway.
Correct Answer: [B] It is a bond between a hydrogen atom and another strongly electronegative atom (such as oxygen or nitrogen) which is present in another molecule.
Option A Explanation:
Hydrogen bond is an intermolecular (Secondary) bond, not a covalent bond. Intermolecular forces are the forces of attraction or repulsion between molecules. They are weaker than chemical bonds but crucial for determining physical properties like boiling point, melting point, and solubility.
Option B Explanation:
Hydrogen bond is an intermolecular bond and it can be found between Hydrogen and other electronegative atoms which can be F, N, or O, present in another molecule as stated. Thus, this option is correct.
Option C Explanation:
In general, intermolecular bonds, including hydrogen bonds, are much weaker than intramolecular bonds, which are the strong covalent or ionic bonds that hold atoms together within a molecule. Hydrogen bonds occur only between polar molecules and do not form between non-polar molecules.
Option D Explanation:
Within the water molecule, bond between hydrogen and oxygen is a covalent bond, not a hydrogen bond. If it said the bond is between hydrogen and oxygen between water molecules, it could be true.
Option E Explanation:
Hydrogen bonds form when a hydrogen atom, covalently bonded to a highly electronegative atom like nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine, is attracted to a lone pair of electrons on another nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine atom in a different molecule. This requires a polar molecule with a hydrogen attached to N, O, or F and another nearby molecule with available lone pairs on these atoms.
Correct Answer: [D] Hexose
Option A Explanation:
Glucose is a hexose sugar with 6 carbon atoms, while pentoses have 5 carbon atoms. Examples of pentoses include ribose, found in RNA, and deoxyribose, found in DNA.
Option B Explanation:
Trioses are simple sugars with 3 carbon atoms, such as glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone, important in energy metabolism. Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone are the intermediates in the glycolysis process. Glucose, having 6 carbon, is a hexose, not a triose.
Option C Explanation:
Tetroses are monosaccharides with four carbon atoms. They include aldotetroses like erythrose and ketotetroses like erythrulose. Tetroses are less common but play roles in some metabolic pathways.
Option D Explanation:
Hexoses are monosaccharides with six carbon atoms, like glucose, fructose, and galactose. They are important energy sources and building blocks in metabolism.
Option E Explanation:
Nonoses are monosaccharides with nine carbon atoms. An example is sialic acid (N-acetylneuraminic acid), which is important in cell signaling and found on the surfaces of animal cells.
Correct Answer: [C] Ribose
Option A Explanation:
Fructose is a hexose sugar with six carbon atoms and is classified as a ketose due to its ketone group. It occurs naturally in fruits, honey, and some vegetables and is sweeter than glucose. Unlike ribose, fructose is not part of RNA structure.
Option B Explanation:
Glycerol is a three-carbon alcohol with three hydroxyl groups, making it highly water-soluble. It serves as the backbone of triglycerides and phospholipids, where fatty acids attach. Glycerol is not present in the structure of RNA molecules.
Option C Explanation:
The monomer found in RNA is the nucleotide, which consists of ribose as the sugar unit, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. Ribose is a five-carbon aldopentose sugar. Unlike RNA, DNA contains deoxyribose, a similar sugar that lacks one oxygen atom.
Option D Explanation:
Lactose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose linked by a β-1,4-glycosidic bond. It is naturally found in milk and dairy products and is broken down in the body by the enzyme lactase into its monosaccharide components for absorption.
Option E Explanation:
Glucose is a hexose monosaccharide with six carbon atoms, classified as an aldose because it has an aldehyde group. It is a primary source of energy for cells and is found in many foods. Glucose is also a building block of polysaccharides like starch, glycogen, and cellulose.
Correct Answer: [D] They are the proteins that transfer molecules and ions across the plasma membrane
Option A Explanation:
Carrier proteins are a kind of transport proteins that exist on the plasma membrane, and mRNA is transported by different mechanisms, not by carrier proteins.
Option B Explanation:
Proteins that break down phospholipids in the plasma membrane is the phospholipidase enzyme. Carrier proteins only carry materials across the cell membrane.
Option C Explanation:
Proteins that phosphorylate enzymes in the plasma membrane are the kinase enzymes. Carrier proteins only carry materials across the membrane.
Option D Explanation:
Carrier proteins are membrane proteins that transport specific molecules or ions across the cell membrane by binding to them and changing shape to move them across.
Option E Explanation:
Carrier proteins do not transport tRNA or any RNA molecules, which are moved by different nuclear export mechanisms.
Correct Answer: [A] ATP
Option A Explanation:
Cells harvest the chemical energy stored in organic molecules and use it to generate ATP, the molecule that drives most cellular work. Thus, this option is correct.
Option B Explanation:
FAD+ is an energy carrier molecule produced during the Krebs cycle which donates the electrons to the electron transport chain, contributing to the production of ATP, but it is not the cell’s main energy currency—that role belongs to ATP. FADH2 is the reduced form of FAD+.
Option C Explanation:
NADH is an energy carrier molecule produced during glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and other metabolic pathways. NADH is an electron carrier, not the direct energy currency—that role is played by ATP.
Option D Explanation:
Creatine is a compound derived from amino acids. It serves as an energy storage and transfer in the tissues. However, it is not the energy currency of the cell.
Option E Explanation:
NADPH is an electron carrier mainly involved in anabolic (biosynthetic) reactions, such as fatty acid synthesis and the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis.
A document has been prepared to include the images and diagrams related to the questions, placed directly below the worked solutions for clarity and reference.
Correct Answer: [E] An exergonic reaction is a chemical reaction that releases energy
Option A Explanation:
Lipolysis is the process of breaking down triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids; it is not related to ATP hydrolysis.
Option B Explanation:
Oxidation-reduction reactions involve the transfer of electrons, but ATP hydrolysis does not involve electron transfer.
Option C Explanation:
Condensation is a reaction where two molecules join together with the release of water, while ATP hydrolysis is the opposite—it uses water to break a bond.
Option D Explanation:
Endergonic reactions require an input of energy, but ATP hydrolysis is exergonic because it releases energy.
Option E Explanation:
One ATP molecule releases approximately 7.3 kcal/mol (~30.5 kJ/mol) of energy upon hydrolysis, which can be used for cellular work or dissipated as heat, depending on the process. Thus, this option is true.
Correct Answer: [A] Of eukaryotes
Option A Explanation:
Intercellular compartmentalization involves organization of different cell types into specialized functions that collectively support the organism’s physiological processes. Since it contains multiple cell types to organize into specific tissues, it only occurs in multicellular organisms. Thus, this option is true.
Option B Explanation:
Viruses lead a type of borrowed life, relying entirely on host cells for replication, and are not considered true cells. As a result, they lack cellular structures and do not possess intercellular compartmentalization.
Option C Explanation:
Bacteria, which are prokaryotes, are typically unicellular organisms. Therefore, they lack intercellular compartmentalization, as they consist of a single cell without internal membrane-bound compartments.
Option D Explanation:
Prokaryotes are typically unicellular organisms. Therefore, there is no intercellular compartmentalisation.
Option E Explanation:
Algae can be both unicellular and multicellular. However, multicellular algae usually lack true tissue differentiation. Therefore, there is no intercellular compartmentalization.
Correct Answer: [B] The centriole
Option A Explanation:
The nucleus is supported by the nuclear lamina, made of intermediate filaments, not microtubules. Microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton outside the nucleus and do not form part of its structure.
Option B Explanation:
Centrioles are cylindrical cellular structures composed primarily of microtubules. They are typically arranged in a characteristic "9+0" pattern, where nine triplets of microtubules are arranged in a circle. Thus, this option is true.
Option C Explanation:
The Golgi apparatus is not composed of microtubules; it is made of stacks of flattened membrane-bound sacs called cisternae. However, microtubules help position and transport vesicles to and from the Golgi, but they are not part of its structure.
Option D Explanation:
The nucleolus is not composed of microtubules. It is a dense region inside the nucleus made of RNA, DNA, and proteins, where ribosome subunits are assembled. Microtubules are not part of its structure.
Option E Explanation:
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is not composed of microtubules. It is made of a network of membrane-bound tubules and sacs. While microtubules help position and organize the ER within the cell, they are not part of the ER’s structure itself.
Correct Answer: [E] An outer membrane and a very selective inner membrane
Option A Explanation:
“A very selective membrane” part is correct for inner membrane but the latter is incorrect. On the inner membrane, there are proteins that take part in the electron transport chain.
Option B Explanation:
Mitochondria typically have two membranes: outer membrane and inner membrane. Each membrane is composed of phospholipid bilayer. Thus, this option is false.
Option C Explanation:
Mitochondria have two membranes: an outer membrane, which is smooth and encloses the organelle, and an inner membrane, which is folded into cristae to increase the surface area for energy production. Between these two membranes is the intermembrane space, which plays a role in cellular respiration.
Option D Explanation:
Mitochondria have two membranes: an outer membrane, which is smooth and not very selective, but the inner membrane is more selective.
Option E Explanation:
Mitochondria have an outer membrane, which is permeable to small molecules, and a very selective inner membrane, which controls the passage of ions and molecules and is folded into cristae to enhance energy production.
Correct Answer: [A] The sequence of three nucleotides found on the tRNA corresponding to a codon on the mRNA.
Option A Explanation:
Anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides on a tRNA molecule that is complementary to a codon on mRNA. During translation, the anticodon pairs with the mRNA codon, ensuring the correct amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain.
Option B Explanation:
A sequence of three nucleotides transcribed from the mRNA is a codon, not an anticodon.
Option C Explanation:
This option describes a DNA codon.
Option D Explanation:
rRNA has neither codon nor anticodon. Anticodon is on tRNA and does not directly bind amino acids (amino acids bind to the other end of tRNA).
Option E Explanation:
Sequence of three mRNA nucleotides is a mRNA codon.
Correct Answer: [D] RNA and proteins
Option A Explanation:
DNA is not a component of ribosomes. In eukaryotic cells, DNA can be found in the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Option B Explanation:
Both DNA and lipids are not components of ribosomes.
Option C Explanation:
DNA is not a component of ribosomes. In eukaryotic cells, DNA can be found in the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Option D Explanation:
A ribosome is composed of a large and a small subunit, each containing a combination of proteins and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Therefore, this statement is correct.
Option E Explanation:
DNA is not a component of ribosomes.
Correct Answer: [C] a double phospholipid layer with hydrophobic tails facing inward and the presence of integral and peripheral proteins
Option A Explanation:
The Cell membrane is composed of double layer of phospholipids embedded by proteins and cholesterol. Triglyceride is involved as a component of phospholipid, and cholesterol is found wedged between phospholipid molecules. Both of these molecules does not exist as a layer. Thus, this option is false.
Option B Explanation:
Membrane proteins are embedded in the fluid matrix of the lipid bilayer. They do not exist as a separate layer. Thus, this option is false.
Option C Explanation:
The cell membrane consists of a double phospholipid layer (bilayer) with hydrophobic tails facing inward and hydrophilic heads facing outward, along with integral and peripheral proteins embedded or attached to the membrane.
Option D Explanation:
There is not a glycoprotein layer in the latest fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane. Glycoproteins and glycolipids can be found on the surface of the cell membrane toward the ECF.
Option E Explanation:
Fatty acids and globular proteins does not exist as a separate layer. Fatty acids can be found as a component of phospholipid in the phospholipid bilayer and globular proteins are embedded in the fluid matrix of the lipid bilayer. Thus, this option is false.
Correct Answer: [B] It is the process by which mRNA is read and converted into a specific sequence of amino acids.
Option A Explanation:
This option describes the process of reverse transcription. Reverse transcription is the process where RNA is converted into DNA using the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This occurs in some viruses, like retroviruses (e.g., HIV), allowing their RNA genome to be integrated into the host’s DNA.
Option B Explanation:
This option correctly describes the process of translation. Translation is the process of protein synthesis, where the ribosome reads mRNA codons and uses tRNA to bring matching amino acids, forming a polypeptide chain. It takes place in the cytoplasm.
Option C Explanation:
This option does not describe the process of translation.
Option D Explanation:
tRNA anticodons pair only with codons on mRNA during translation, but this alone does not fully explain the entire process of protein synthesis.
Option E Explanation:
This option describes the process of transcription, not translation. Transcription is the process where DNA is used as a template to produce messenger RNA (mRNA). This occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and is carried out by the enzyme RNA polymerase, which builds the mRNA strand complementary to the DNA template.
Correct Answer: [A] Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
Option A Explanation:
The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers extending throughout the cytoplasm. The eukaryotic cytoskeleton is composed of three types of molecular structures: microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filament. Thus, the given option correctly describes it.
Option B Explanation:
Microtubule is a component of the cytoskeleton but myosin and filamin are not.
Option C Explanation:
Microtubule is a component of the cytoskeleton but dynein and myosin are not.
Option D Explanation:
All of these mentioned proteins are not principal components of the cytoskeleton.
Option E Explanation:
Mentioned fibres are not the principal components of the cytoskeleton.
Correct Answer: [C] one of several alternative forms of a gene
Option A Explanation:
This option does not describes the term “allele”
Option B Explanation:
This option describes a triplet code, not the term “allele”
Option C Explanation:
An allele is a variant form of a gene found at a specific location (locus) on a chromosome. Different alleles can result in variations in inherited traits, such as eye color or blood type. Thus, This option correctly describes the term “allele”.
Option D Explanation:
This option does not describes the term “allele”
Option E Explanation:
A set of coding DNA triplets is called a codon, not an allele.
Correct Answer: [E] Dominant
Option A Explanation:
In associated genes, the expression of one allele is associated by another allele. Thus, it is evident that an allele cannot certainly express itself in any condition.
Option B Explanation:
If a character is determined by the expression of multiple genes, it is not possible that one allele certainly expresses itself.
Option C Explanation:
Mutated alleles means the allele is not in its normal state to be expressed. Thus, it cannot certainly express itself.
Option D Explanation:
For a recessive allele to be able to certainly express itself, it needs to be in homozygous condition.
Option E Explanation:
According to the third concept of the Mendel’s model, it is described that, if the two alleles at a locus differ (in heterozygous condition), then one, the dominant allele, determines the organism’s appearance; the other, the recessive allele, has no noticeable effect on the organism’s appearance. Thus, for a allele to be certainly expressed, it needs to be a completely dominant allele.
Correct Answer: E) Alterations in the genetic information of a cell
Option A Explanation:
This refers to changes in how cells divide, such as errors in mitosis or meiosis, but this is not the definition of mutation itself.
Option B Explanation:
Changes in how substances are actively transported across membranes, which is not related to mutations directly.
Option C Explanation:
Changes in enzymes during fertilisation or early development; this is not what defines a mutation.
Option D Explanation:
Changes in how the cell produces or uses energy, which might be a result of a mutation, but this is not the definition of mutation itself.
Option E Explanation:
Mutations are permanent changes in the DNA sequence, altering the genetic information of a cell, which can affect proteins and traits.
Correct Answer: [A] leads to the synthesis of polypeptide chains from mRNA
Option A Explanation:
This option correctly describes the process of translation. Translation is the process that leads to the synthesis of polypeptide chains from mRNA, where ribosomes read the mRNA codons and tRNA brings the corresponding amino acids to build the protein.
Option B Explanation:
In eukaryotic cells, translation process occurs in the cytoplasm.
Option C Explanation:
Translation leads to the synthesis of proteins from RNA. The process that RNA molecules are synthesised from the DNA is known as transcription process.
Option D Explanation:
Transcription is a process in which mRNA is synthesised from DNA. Translation is the process that comes after transcription that leads to the synthesis of proteins from RNA. Thus, it can be seen that these two processes are not similar to each other.
Option E Explanation:
Translation occurs in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. This is one of the fundamental processes of gene expression in organisms.
Correct Answer: [A] GGCAATAACT
Option A Explanation:
According to the Chargaff’s rule of base equivalences and the Watson and Crick model, it is reasoned that Adenine pairs with Thymine and Guanine pairs with Cytosine. Therefore, on the complementary strand, GGC AAT AAC T sequence will be found.
Option B Explanation:
Bases mentioned are not complementary to the sequence in the question.
Option C Explanation:
Bases mentioned are not complementary to the sequence in the question.
Option D Explanation:
Bases mentioned are not complementary to the sequence in the question.
Option E Explanation:
Bases mentioned are not complementary to the sequence in the question.
Correct Answer: [B] DNA is used as a template to synthesise new DNA molecules
Option A Explanation:
RNA does not generally replicate itself in most biological systems.
Option B Explanation:
DNA replicates typically in the semiconservative model, in which the two strands of the parental DNA molecule separate, and each functions as a template for synthesis of a new, complementary DNA strand. Thus, this option is true.
Option C Explanation:
This option describes Mitosis or Meiosis process, not replication.
Option D Explanation:
This option describes the Translation process, not replication.
Option E Explanation:
This option describes the Transcription process, not replication.
Correct Answer: [C] A functional unit composed of a group of adjacent genes, coordinately controlled, and of DNA sequences with regulatory functions
Option A Explanation:
Together, the operator, the promoter, and the genes they control (the entire stretch of DNA required for expression of a specific gene) constitute an operon. Thus, it does not contain proteins.
Option B Explanation:
The group of genes involved in operon unit are dependent on each other. For example, in trp repressor, if a repressor binds to the operator, it blocks attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter and thereby prevents transcription of the genes.
Option C Explanation:
It correctly describes the structure and function of operon unit.
Option D Explanation:
Operon unit is discovered as a basic mechanism for the control of gene expression in bacteria, in the transcription stage, by interfering with the transcription of DNA genes. Thus, the operon unit solely consists of DNA segments.
Option E Explanation:
This option describes the opposite of the function of Operon unit which is to adjust the production level of certain enzymes.
This is a question about the Dalton’s law of partial pressure.
Dalton’s Law, or the Law of Partial Pressures, states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
Given : the mixture contains 3 types of gases which are Nitrogen, Carbon dioxide and Oxygen. Total pressure is given. Mole values of individual gases are given.
PX = Xn · Ptotal
ntotal = nN₂ + nCO₂ + nO₂ = 0.3 mol + 0.5 mol + 0.4 mol = 1.2 mol
Xn = nN₂ / ntotal = 0.3 mol / 1.2 mol = 0.25
PN₂ = XN₂ · Ptotal = 0.25 · 2.4 = 0.6 atm