IMAT 2016 Answers & Worked Solution

Full explanation

Searching the full tiled design for every corner that matches one of these 4 orientations (a right-angle step where a smaller square notch meets a larger square) gives 17 matching corners in total.

Therefore, the correct answer is C: 17.

Full explanation

It is given that 9 operations can take place in any order, at any time. And the product has to be ready in 16 hours. So, first we will try to pick the operations that take 16 hours in total. Operation A and H: 16 hours in total — 1 worker.

Operation E and G: 16 hours in total — 1 worker.

Operation I and B: 13 hours in total — 1 worker.

Operation D and F: 11 hours in total — 1 worker.

Operation C: 8 hours — 1 worker. Thus, the minimum number of workers required to manufacture the product in the given time is 5.

Full explanation

The four painted sides sit in a ring around the tin, and you’re free to spin the tin on the spot before comparing it with another one. Spinning doesn’t repaint anything, it just changes your viewpoint – so two colour patterns that are rotations of each other are the same tin, not two different ones. That’s the idea the whole question turns on.

If we ignored that and just coloured 4 sides with 2 colours freely, we’d get 2⁴ = 16 raw patterns. Most of those are rotations of each other, so group them by how many red sides they have and count how many genuinely different-looking tins survive in each group.

0 red (all blue): only BBBB – spin it however you like, it never becomes anything else. 1 tin.

4 red (all red): only RRRR, by the same logic. 1 tin.

1 red, 3 blue: it doesn’t matter which of the four sides is the red one, because you can always rotate the tin so that side faces you. All four positions collapse into 1 tin. The mirror case, 1 blue and 3 red, gives another 1 tin.

2 red, 2 blue: this is the one that trips people up, because there are two genuinely different arrangements here – the two red sides can sit next to each other (RRBB) or opposite each other (RBRB). No amount of spinning turns adjacent reds into opposite reds, so these are two separate tins, not one.

Adding up the distinct tins: 1 (all blue) + 1 (all red) + 1 (one red) + 1 (one blue) + 1 (reds adjacent) + 1 (reds opposite) = 6.

Therefore, the correct answer is A: 6.

Full explanation

In a skiing competition, competitors who fail to finish their first run are not allowed to make a second run. In the second round, skiers compete in the reverse order of their positions after the first round.

In the 1st round, Grace was the 8th skier. At the end of 1st round, She was in 6th position (2 failed).

In the 2nd round, she had to wait for 17 skiers (meaning she had at least 17 skiers behind her in the first round). It is given that a total of 3 skiers have failed the 1st round, and we’ve already known two, one of three must be from the skiers behind Grace on the first round. (So, total skiers behind Grace becomes 18)

So, total number of competitors = 7 + 1 (Grace) + 18 = 26

Full explanation

Two facts anchor this passage: right after surgery, when sight was brand new, the children were barely beating a coin flip at matching a felt object to a seen one. Days later, they’d gotten measurably better. That improvement over time is the whole story here, and it points to one specific kind of conclusion.

Think about what “innate” would actually predict: if visual-touch matching were built in from birth, it would already be there the moment the children could see – no practice needed, no improvement over days. That’s exactly the opposite of what happened. The skill showed up weak and grew with experience, which is the signature of something learned, not something wired in from the start. That’s option B.

Option C claims the reverse – that this is innate – which the data flatly contradicts. Option A reads a moral judgement into a passage that’s just reporting an experiment; nothing here says whether testing children this way was right or wrong. And D and E both try to smuggle in a comparison to adults that was never made – the study only ever tested children, so there’s no basis to say children do this better or worse than adults.

Full explanation

Both arrive at the depot at 1:00 pm.

Large van :

Starts loading at 8 am and returns at 1pm (total 5 hours) — takes 2 and half hours for 1 deli — so, the large van can do 2 delivery rounds in the morning.

Small van :

Takes 1 hour and 10 mins for 1 deli route — within 5 hours, a small van can do 4 rounds of deli maximally which takes 4 hours and 40 mins. So, to be back at 1pm, the small van can start loading 20 mins later than the large van at 8:20am.

Full explanation

Key given fact : the quantities of other ingredients as a percentage of the weight of flour used.

The baker is preparing to make a white bread with 250 kg of flour.

To make a white bread:

Water – content equal to 54% of flour amount = 250 × 0.54 = 135 kg.

Salt – content equal to 2% of flour amount = 250 × 0.02 = 5 kg.

Fat – content equal to 17% of flour amount = 250 × 0.17 = 42.5 kg.

Total weight of the mixture = 250 kg + 135 kg + 5 kg + 42.5 kg = 432.5 kg.

Full explanation

Two conditions have to be satisfied together: protein of at least 20 g, and fat of no more than 4 g. A sandwich that fails either one is out, no matter how cheap it is. Go through the table row by row and check both boxes:

Beef – 22 g protein (passes), 3.4 g fat (passes). Qualifies, at £2.00.

Chicken – 26 g protein, the highest of any sandwich (passes), but 4.1 g fat just tips over the 4 g limit. Out, despite the great protein score.

Ham – 18 g protein, short of the 20 g minimum. Out on protein alone, regardless of its fat.

Turkey – 20 g protein (passes, right at the minimum), 2.5 g fat (passes). Qualifies, at £2.20.

Salad – 8 g protein, nowhere near enough. Out.

Tuna – 19 g protein, just 1 g short of the threshold, and 14.3 g fat besides. Out on both counts, even though it’s priced the same as beef.

Only beef and turkey clear both bars. Beef is the cheaper of the two, £2.00 against £2.20, so that’s the smallest amount she can spend and still meet her own rules.

Therefore, the correct answer is B: £2.00.

Full explanation

The chain of reasoning here rests on one single move: since young children pick up their first language just by being immersed in it – no grammar drills, no rules, and by five or six they’re fluent – the same must be true of anyone learning a second language. Skip the textbook grammar, just get exposure, and competence will follow.

That move only works if learning a second language is fundamentally the same process as learning a first one. Try denying it: suppose acquiring a second language actually works quite differently from picking up a first one (an adult brain already has one grammar system installed and has to consciously work around it, say). The moment that’s true, nothing about how five-year-olds absorb their mother tongue tells you anything about how a 30-year-old should study French, and the whole argument falls apart. That’s exactly what makes E the assumption it’s built on – deny it and the reasoning collapses.

The rest don’t carry that weight. A drags in reading ability, which the passage never mentions – the claim is about grammar study, not literacy. B would actually cut against the argument rather than prop it up: if languages were wildly different from each other, you’d have even less reason to assume one acquisition method fits all of them. C might be true in some general sense, but the argument doesn’t need children to be better learners than adults, it needs the process itself to transfer, which is a different claim entirely. D just isn’t there in the text; exposure is mentioned, reading specifically is not.

Full explanation

If we break down the given tiles, the following patterns can be noticed.

2 tiles — 2 small parts of a circle of the same size.

2 tiles — one large circle part and one small circle part

2 tiles — one large circle part

We can exclude option B because there are 3 tiles with one large circle part and one small circle part. Exclude option C because there is an irregular tile. Exclude option D because there are 3 tiles with 2 small parts of a circle of the same size. Exclude option E because there are 3 tiles with 2 small parts of a circle of the same size.

Therefore, the patterns can also be made from the same six tiles is the one from option A.

Full explanation

It’s tempting to grab the last sentence – “thinking and playing are really one and the same thing” – and call that the conclusion, since it’s introduced with a textbook conclusion-word, “it follows that”. But look at what job that sentence is actually doing in the paragraph. Everything before it builds a case for a claim that’s already been stated right at the start: children need to play in order to develop their thinking skills. The middle of the passage explains why – playing runs the same mental processes as thinking – and the closing line is really just a punchy way of underlining that link, not a separate destination the argument is travelling towards.

Ask what the passage is fundamentally trying to convince you of. It isn’t trying to sell you on a philosophical claim about play and thought being identical for its own sake – that’s option C, and it’s a fair paraphrase of the final sentence, but not the passage’s actual point. It’s arguing for something practical: that play matters and should be protected because of what it does for a developing mind. That’s D, and it’s the claim everything else in the paragraph is in service of.

A and E aren’t supported anywhere in the text at all – nothing is said about teaching children how to think, or about play being an early stage of abstract reasoning. B gets closer, since a lack of play plausibly follows from the argument, but that’s a side-effect you could draw out of it, not the point being made.

Full explanation

The passage builds to one clear rule, stated almost as a formula: the question science should ask isn’t “what’s in it for us” but “could this have happened naturally” – and if the answer is no, don’t do it, however tempting the benefits. That’s a principle about where the line sits, not a verdict on any one technology.

C matches that rule directly: science shouldn’t progress beyond what nature would do on its own. Notice it’s pitched at the right level of generality – a rule you could apply to any future case, not a one-off judgement about cloning or breeding specifically.

D sounds similar but isn’t a principle at all – it’s a call to action (“call a halt”), the practical recommendation that follows FROM the principle, not the principle itself. E is a specific verdict about three named practices, again a conclusion the principle produces rather than the underlying rule doing the producing. A misreads the passage – nowhere does the author argue nature will inevitably win out, only that we shouldn’t push past it deliberately. And B overstates the case: the author worries about unknown consequences of meddling, not that disaster is certain, so “could only ever end in disaster” goes further than the text supports.

Full explanation

If the left top corner is the middle part of the paper, then there would be a square hole in the middle when unfolded. And a circle top and bottom of that square hole.

If the right bottom corner is the middle part of the paper, then there would be a diamond 4-sided shaped hole in the middle when unfolded. No circle above and below the hole.

Therefore, it is obvious that option E cannot possibly be the appearance of the paper after I unfold it.

Full explanation

Strip the argument down to its shape: US life expectancy is rising more slowly than elsewhere; smoking rates are said to be roughly equal across rich countries today, so smoking can’t explain the gap; therefore it must be obesity and inactivity. That “therefore” only survives if there’s genuinely no other plausible cause competing for the blame.

D reopens exactly that door. Life expectancy today reflects decades of health history, not just current habits – so if the US had unusually heavy smoking back in the 1960s and 70s, that generation is only now reaching the ages where smoking-related disease (heart disease, cancer, COPD) cuts life short. A gap driven by decades-old smoking would look identical, from the outside, to a gap driven by today’s obesity, which means the argument can no longer pin the blame on diet and exercise with any confidence. That’s a genuine competing explanation, and a competing explanation is exactly what weakens a causal argument like this one.

The rest don’t do that work. A says medical care is roughly equal across countries – that leaves the obesity theory untouched rather than challenging it. B (Americans spend more on fast food) if anything reinforces the obesity story instead of undermining it. C is about Japanese diets decades ago, which isn’t what the argument rests on. E – fast food spreading to other countries too – blurs the USA’s uniqueness a little, but it doesn’t explain why the USA specifically is lagging, so it’s a far weaker challenge than D’s built-in alternative cause.

Full explanation

The passage’s logic runs: DNA evidence shows TB genuinely crosses between badgers and cattle, so culling badgers is justified to protect farmers and the food supply. For that conclusion to hold up, culling badgers actually has to be an effective way to bring the disease under control – not just a reasonable response to where it partly comes from.

B goes straight at that gap: if cattle movement between farms is also spreading TB significantly, then culling badgers alone won’t solve the problem the argument is trying to solve. You could remove every badger in the country and still see TB spreading through the national herd via cattle transport. That doesn’t dispute the DNA evidence at all – it just shows that treating badgers as THE fix, on their own, doesn’t actually follow from badgers being A source.

None of the other options touch that gap. A is about what animal rights activists want, which says nothing about whether culling works. C and E both raise practical or opinion-based objections (vaccination cost, farmer scepticism) without disputing that culling would reduce TB if applied. D is just about culling being unpopular – unpopularity isn’t the same as ineffectiveness, so it leaves the argument’s actual reasoning untouched.

Full explanation

In the next reset (in March), New York and Santiago will show the same time.

Reading the January-to-March column for every city: Dubai, Singapore and Tokyo don’t change their clocks at all, while London, Athens and Chicago move forward an hour and Sydney moves back an hour – none of these match another city’s new time.

New York moves forward from 10:37 to 11:37, and Santiago moves back from 12:37 to 11:37 – so in March, New York and Santiago show exactly the same time, 11:37.

Therefore, the correct answer is C: New York and Santiago.

Full explanation

Read the passage as moving through a rejected idea before landing on the one it actually endorses. It opens by naming the problem (childhood obesity), floats the obvious-sounding fix (raise the price of unhealthy food), then knocks that fix down – convenience, not price, is what really drives what parents put in front of their kids. The sentence that survives all of that is the last one: a wider range of ready-to-eat healthy options would be a good start. That’s C, and it’s the only option representing where the argument actually ends up rather than somewhere it merely passes through.

E and D are both just the opening premise restated – childhood obesity being a problem, and children having access to unhealthy food – true, but scene-setting rather than the point being argued for. B is the idea the passage explicitly argues against (“unlikely to work”), so picking it as the conclusion has the argument contradicting itself. A drifts into a related but different claim about parental control that the passage mentions only in passing, while explaining why raising prices seemed appealing in the first place.

Full explanation

To strengthen “switch to an opt-out system, because it would massively increase organ supply and that would help patients”, the most direct move is to make the current, opt-in system look inadequate – if voluntary donation were already working fine, there’d be far less reason to change it.

B does exactly that: a donor pool that’s small and going nowhere is a strong practical case for trying a different system, since the status quo clearly isn’t going to close the gap on its own. That’s a genuine boost to the argument, not just a restatement of it.

Every other option pulls the other way. A points to the emotional cost for grieving families – a real downside of the scheme, not a reason to think it’ll work better. C says not every donated organ is usable, which chips away at how much good the “vastly increased supply” actually buys. D flags political opposition, and E flags uncertainty about how many people would opt out – both are reasons to doubt the plan will run smoothly, not reasons to think it’s a good idea in the first place.

Full explanation

The author’s case is that using male models for womenswear is a good thing because it exposes how unrealistic the usual catwalk body type is for real women. To strengthen that, you want evidence that the swap is actually doing the good the author claims – changing how women see that ideal – rather than evidence about designers’ motives or media buzz.

E supplies exactly that: surveys showing young women find the typical model physique less desirable to aim for, once male models enter the picture, is direct evidence that the intended effect – undercutting an unhealthy standard – is actually happening. It confirms the argument’s payoff, not just its premise.

A undercuts the argument rather than helping it – if designers are doing this purely for media attention, the positive social reading the author gives it looks less credible. B and D are background noise: struggling models and confused onlookers don’t speak to whether the practice helps or hurts body image. C is the closest distractor, since it echoes the author’s framing, but it only shows that some designers agree with the point – it doesn’t show the strategy actually changes how women feel about their bodies, which is the specific evidence E provides.

Full explanation

Strip the passage to its bare structure and you get: someone visible and influential does something good, publicly, so that other people copy them. To find a matching example, look for all three pieces together – a person with visibility, a positive act done openly, and the intent (or effect) of inspiring imitation – not just any statement about influence or ethics in general.

D has all three: company directors, visibly recycling themselves, so employees follow suit. Swap “celebrities and charity” for “directors and recycling” and it’s the same shape of argument, piece for piece.

The others are each missing at least one piece. A is about obeying successful people’s opinions on everything, which isn’t about setting an example through one’s own action. B describes copying bad behaviour (or its absence) – the mirror image of the original principle rather than a match for it. C is about individuals doing good directly, with no influential figure and no one being inspired to follow. E is about company size dictating responsibility, which has nothing to do with leading by example.

Full explanation

NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) was founded on April 4, 1949. The 12 founding members were :

US, Canada, UK, France, Italy, Belgium, Netherlands, Luxembourg, Norway, Denmark, Iceland, Portugal.

Full explanation

The 7 Wonders of the Ancient World are :

The Great Pyramid of Giza (Egypt)

The Hanging Gardens of Babylon (Iraq — though existence is debated)

The Statue of Zeus at Olympia (Greece)

The Temple of Artemis at Ephesus (Turkey)

The Mausoleum at Halicarnassus (Turkey)

The Colossus of Rhodes (Greece)

The Lighthouse of Alexandria (Egypt)

Full explanation

Nucleolus : produces rRNA and it is also the house of DNA since it is inside the nucleus.

Mitochondrion : contains both its own rRNA and circular DNA.

Chloroplast : contains both its own rRNA and circular DNA.

Smooth ER : Does not contain RNA or DNA Ribosome : contains RNA but does not contain DNA.

Full explanation

An organism is heterozygous for two genes. 2 genes are on the same DNA molecule.

It could be E and R on one chromosome and e and r on another.

(or)

E and r on one chromosome and e and R on another.

Whatever the case is — at the end of a mitotic division, the exact same chromosomes will be in the daughter cell because this is mitosis (no crossing over, no random arrangement of homologous chromosomes)

So, both row 6 and row 7 could be the case.

Full explanation

Transcription is the synthesis of mRNA using DNA as a template.

Translation is the synthesis of protein using mRNA as template and tRNA and rRNA serve as part of machinery.

So, nucleic acid NOT directly involved in transcription is tRNA or rRNA.

Nucleic acid NOT directly involved in translation is DNA.

The correct row is row 1.

Full explanation

In pure extracts of DNA molecules, there is pentose sugar, a phosphate group bound to sugar through phosphodiester bonds, and one of 4 bases which are adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine. Since DNA is double stranded, hydrogen bonds can also be found between 2 strands.

In pure extracts of tRNA molecule, there is pentose sugar, a phosphate group bound to sugar through phosphodiester bonds, and one of 4 bases which are adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil. tRNA is in clover shape which is formed through hydrogen bonds.

In both molecules, pentose sugar, a phosphate group bound to sugar through phosphodiester bonds, 3 bases (A, C, G) and hydrogen bonds can be found.

Therefore, the correct row is row 4.

Full explanation

Genetic drift : Genetic drift is the fluctuation of allele frequencies in a population, especially significant in small populations. It occurs by chance. So, this is a random process.

Mutations : Mutations occur due to errors in DNA replication or from external factors (radiation, chemicals), but the location and nature of mutation are random. So, this also can be a random process.

Artificial selection : Artificial selection is intentional and directed by humans who select individuals with desired traits to reproduce. This is a non-random process because specific traits are chosen on purpose.

Therefore, only process 1 and 2 can be random processes.

Full explanation

Some steps involved in the production of transgenic plants.

1. Prepare the plasmid

2. Isolate the target gene

3. Mix the target gene with the plasmid and make copies

4. Identify the recombinant plasmid 5. Inject that recombinant plasmid into host plant cells So, the correct order would be Z → W → V → X → Y

Full explanation

E coli is a prokaryote and prokaryote has size around 1 µm

Human RBC is an animal eukaryotic cell and eukaryotic cells have size around 10-100 µm Onion cell is a plant eukaryotic cell and plant cells are usually bigger than animal cells.

Therefore the sequence of cells according to increasing size is

E. coli → human red blood cell → onion epidermal cell

Full explanation

Bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. Gall bladder is solely used to store the bile.

Thus, the correct option is option D.

Full explanation

This plasmid is a circular piece of DNA that’s been cut open at one point and stretched out flat for the diagram – like snipping a rubber band and laying it out straight. Because it used to be a closed loop, the two ends of the strand you’re shown aren’t unrelated: they’re the two edges of that same single cut, so they sit directly opposite each other on the two strands once you picture the circle closed back up. That’s exactly where positions 1 to 5 are drawn – right underneath A-A-C-G-A.

So positions 1-5 aren’t a fresh stretch of DNA to work out independently – they’re just the bases on the complementary strand, sitting directly across from A-A-C-G-A.

This is DNA, not RNA, so there’s no uracil anywhere in the answer – that rules out options B, C and D on sight, since they all use U. We’re left choosing between A and E using ordinary Watson-Crick pairing: A pairs with T, C pairs with G.

Going along the strand: A→T, A→T, C→G, G→C, A→T – giving T-T-G-C-T for positions 1 through 5. Option E (T C G T T) looks similar but swaps the 2nd and 4th letters, so it’s worth checking base-by-base rather than pattern-matching.

Therefore, the correct answer is A: T T G C T.

Full explanation

Label number 1 : Brain stem — Controls vital functions (e.g., breathing, heartbeat)

Label number 2 : Pituitary gland — Regulates many other endocrine glands; essential for homeostasis and growth.

Label number 3 : Cerebrum — it is responsible for memory, conscious thought, voluntary movement, learning, personality.

Label number 4 : Occipital lobe — It is dedicated entirely to vision — damage here can lead to partial or complete blindness, visual hallucinations, or misperceptions.

Label number 5 : Cerebellum — Balance, coordination, fine motor skills So, the structure that plays the major role in regulating the nervous control of heart rate is the brain stem.

Full explanation

A dipeptide is just two amino acids joined by a single peptide (amide) bond, -CO-NH-. To split it back into its two separate amino acids, you only need to hydrolyse that one bond – water adds across it, restoring a -COOH on one residue and a free amino group on the other.

In the structure, bond 3 sits exactly on that C-N join between the two residues – it’s the peptide bond. The other four bonds all sit inside one residue or the other, so cutting them just knocks a piece off a single amino acid rather than separating two whole ones:

Bond 1 links the right-hand residue’s own alpha-carbon to its -NH₃⁺ group – breaking it strips that residue’s amino group off, it doesn’t free two amino acids.

Bond 2 links that same alpha-carbon to its own carbonyl carbon, again entirely within the right-hand residue.

Bonds 4 and 5 sit on the left-hand residue’s alpha-carbon, holding its H and its CH₃ side chain – those are just substituents of that one amino acid (alanine), not the link between the two residues.

Only bond 3 is the actual peptide bond joining the two amino acids together, so that’s the one hydrolysis has to break. Therefore, the correct answer is C: 3.

Full explanation

Respiratory enzymes mean enzymes that help speed up the reaction during the cellular respiration process.

All the mentioned molecules are coenzymes, not enzymes.

Acetyl CoA is used during pyruvate oxidation and FAD and NADH acts as electron carriers.

Examples of enzymes include hexokinase, enolase, and pyruvate kinase.

Full explanation

In the testes of a healthy man there are diploid cells that undergo meiosis to produce gametes.

Analysis of the given statements Statement 1 : True. Before meiosis begins, the diploid primary spermatocyte undergoes interphase, during which DNA replication occurs. So each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids → DNA content is doubled, but the cell is still diploid (2n).

Statement 2 : False. After meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated → two cells are formed, each with half the number of chromosomes → haploid (n). Therefore, cells at the start of meiosis II are haploid, not diploid.

Statement 3 : True. At the end of meiosis II, 4 daughter cells are produced each with n number of chromosomes (total 4n). The original diploid cells has 2n number of chromosomes. So, it can be said that the total number of chromosomes produced by the end of meiosis II is double that of the original diploid cell.

Full explanation

In the given action potential diagram,

Phase 1 : Resting membrane potential — Na⁺/K⁺ pump maintains this

Phase 2 : Depolarization and action potential — Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open Phase 3 : Repolarization — Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels inactivate and Voltage-gated K⁺ channels open Phase 4 : Return to action potential — K⁺ channels close, Na⁺/K⁺ pump and leak channels restore baseline Phase 5 : Resting membrane potential Therefore, the Na+ gates of the neuron open during phase 2 which is the depolarization and action potential phase.

Full explanation

You can always write a punnett square for each cross but it is recommended to memorize the typical phenotypic ratios of a dihybrid cross. When two heterozygous dihybrids ( RrTt x RrTt) are crossed, the phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1. When a heterozygous dihybrid is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual (RrTt x rrtt), the resulting phenotypic ratio is 1:1:1:1.

In both cases, 4 different phenotypes can be observed. So, the difference between the number of phenotypes for 2 different crosses is 0. (4 – 4 = 0)

Full explanation

In photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes, which are organized into stacks called grana. The hydrogen carrier NADP⁺ is reduced to NADPH during these reactions.

So, the correct option is option C.

Full explanation

The four listed phases are prophase → metaphase (phase two) → anaphase → telophase (phase four). A row only counts if BOTH its phase-two entry and its phase-four entry are actually true – one right and one wrong still kills the row. Go through them:

Row 1: phase two says chromosomes line up – that’s the definition of metaphase, they align on the metaphase plate. Phase four says the nuclear envelope reforms – that’s a hallmark of telophase too. Both correct, row stands.

Row 2: phase four says chromosomes reach opposite poles – that’s describing anaphase, the pulling-apart itself, not telophase, which is the phase after they’ve already arrived. And spindle fibres contracting to pull chromatids apart is also an anaphase event, not something that happens at metaphase. Two mismatches.

Row 3: DNA duplicating to form sister chromatids happens during S-phase of interphase, well before mitosis even begins – it’s not a metaphase event at all. Rules the row out immediately.

Row 4: DNA starting to condense is a prophase event, the stage before metaphase, not metaphase itself. And chromatids separating and moving to opposite poles is anaphase, not telophase. Both entries are one phase too early.

Row 5: homologous chromosomes lining up describes metaphase I of meiosis – in mitosis, individual chromosomes line up singly, not as homologous pairs. And dividing the cytoplasm into two daughter cells is cytokinesis, a separate process that overlaps with but isn’t itself telophase.

Only row 1 survives both checks, so the correct answer is B: row 1 only.

Full explanation

In mitochondria, glucose (a carbohydrate monomer) is the main fuel for cellular respiration, providing reactants for the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.

In Golgi apparatus, proteins produced by the rough ER are modified by addition of carbohydrate tags (glycosylation) to direct them to their appropriate destinations.

In chloroplasts, light energy and water are used during photosynthesis to synthesize glucose.

Therefore, carbohydrates play a relevant role in all of the mentioned organelles.

Full explanation

Usually, strong acids form a weak conjugate base and weak acids form a strong conjugate base. This is the same case for bases.

1. Na₂CO₃ This is a salt formed from the reaction of a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (H₂CO₃). The Na⁺ ion, being the conjugate of a strong base, is a very weak acid and does not contribute significantly to the overall pH. On the other hand, the CO₃²⁻ ion is the conjugate base of a weak acid and is therefore relatively strong. It reacts with water to produce OH⁻ ions, making the solution alkaline.

2 NaCl This is a salt formed from the reaction of a strong base (NaOH) and a strong acid (HCl). Both the Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions are conjugates of strong species, so they are extremely weak and do not hydrolyze in water. Thus, the pH of the solution remains neutral (around 7).

3 NaHSO₄ This salt comes from a strong acid (H₂SO₄) and a strong base (NaOH). Although both reactants are strong, H₂SO₄ is diprotic. After donating its first proton, the remaining HSO₄⁻ ion still has the potential to donate another proton. When NaHSO₄ dissolves in water, Na⁺ does not react with water, but HSO₄⁻ can donate a proton, making the solution acidic.

Therefore, only Na₂CO₃ forms an alkaline solution.

Full explanation

Lead(II) nitrate → contains Pb²⁺ (aq)

Potassium iodide → contains I⁻ (aq)

They form:

Potassium nitrate (soluble) Lead(II) iodide (PbI₂) → yellow precipitate We only include species that change state (i.e., form a solid or gas). Here, Pb²⁺ and I⁻ form a precipitate.

So, the correct ionic equation is Pb²⁺(aq) + 2I⁻(aq) → PbI₂(s)

Full explanation

Given molecule : CH₂=CH–CH₂–CH₂–CO–CH₂–CHO

CH₂=CH– → This is a C=C double bond (Alkene group)

–CO– → a ketone group

–CHO → an aldehyde group

There is no -OH (hydroxyl) group.

So, functional groups 1, 3, and 4 are present.

Full explanation

To determine which particles have the same electronic structure, we need to find out how many electrons each particle has. Particles with the same number of electrons have the same electronic structure (electron configuration) and are called isoelectronic.

₁₂Mg²⁺

Atomic number: 12 → 12 protons. 2+ charge → 12 — 2 = 10 electrons.

₁₀Ne (neutral atom)

Atomic number: 10 → 10 electrons.

₁₆S²⁻

Atomic number: 16. 2− charge → 16 + 2 = 18 electrons.

₉F⁻

Atomic number: 9. 1− charge → 9 + 1 = 10 electrons.

₃Li⁺

Atomic number: 3. 1+ charge → 3 — 1 = 2 electrons.

So, particles 1, 2, and 4 have the same electronic structure.

Full explanation

CH₃OH(l) + CH₃COOH(l) ⇌ CH₃COOCH₃(l) + H₂O(l)

ΔH = -8.5 kJ mol⁻¹ (exothermic)

The question ask the option that increase the amount of CH₃OH at equilibrium. That means we want the equilibrium to shift to the left (toward methanol).

Analysis of the given choices

1. adding more water to the mixture

Water is a product and adding a product shifts the equilibrium to the left.

2. raising the temperature of the mixture

The reaction is exothermic and increasing temperature favors the endothermic (reverse) reaction. So, this would shift equilibrium to the left too.

3. adding sodium hydroxide to the mixture

NaOH is a strong base and will react with ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH), forming CH₃COO⁻ and H₂O. This removes ethanoic acid, a reactant, causing the equilibrium to shift to the left.

4. adding a catalyst to the mixture

A catalyst increases the rate of reaching equilibrium. It does not affect the position of equilibrium.

Therefore, options 1, 2 and 3 increase the amount of CH₃OH at equilibrium.

Full explanation

This is about boiling/melting points, or more broadly, intermolecular forces — the stronger the intermolecular forces, the higher the boiling point, so it becomes a gas later as temperature rises.

CO₂ is a linear, non-polar molecule. It has weak van der Waals forces as the only intermolecular force.

C₃H₈ is a non-polar alkane. It has van der Waals force as intermolecular force, but stronger than CO₂ due to the larger molecular surface.

CH₃CHO is a polar molecule and has dipole-dipole forces due to the polar carbonyl group. So, it will become gas last.

So, the trend is CO₂, C₃H₈, CH₃CHO .

Full explanation

Given :

Concentration of LiOH = 0.10 mol/L

We are asked to find the concentration in g/L

Molar mass of LiOH = 7.0 + 16.0 + 1.0 = 24.0 g/mol Concentration in g/L = mol/L × molar mass = 0.10×24.0 = 2.4 g/L

Full explanation

[NaOH] = 0.01 mol/L = 1 × 10⁻² mol/L

NaOH is a strong base, so it fully dissociates:

NaOH → Na+ + OH−

Therefore, [OH−] = 0.01 mol/L

Given : Kw = 10⁻¹⁴ mol²/L² at 25°C

[H+] = (Kw)/([OH -]) = (10⁻¹⁴)/(10⁻²) = 10⁻¹² mol/L

pH = –log₁₀ [H+] = –log₁₀ (10⁻¹²) = 12

pH = 12

Full explanation

The question asks for the structural isomers of C₄H₈F₂. Since the molecule contains only single bonds, they are rotatable. So, we only count distinct structures and ignore duplicates due to symmetry or flipping the chain.

Possible straight chain structural isomers

Numbering the unbranched chain C1–C2–C3–C4, the two fluorine atoms can be placed on the following pairs of carbons, each giving a distinct compound:

1,1-difluorobutane (both F on C1); 1,2-difluorobutane; 1,3-difluorobutane; 1,4-difluorobutane; 2,2-difluorobutane (both F on C2); 2,3-difluorobutane.

That gives 6 distinct structural isomers in total, so the correct answer is E: 6.

Full explanation

The isotope notation gives you everything you need before any calculation: the superscript, 52, is the mass number (protons plus neutrons together), the subscript, 24, is the atomic number (protons alone, which is what actually makes the element chromium), and the 3+ charge tells you the atom has lost three electrons.

Protons come straight off the atomic number: 24. That alone rules out A and C, which both quote p = 27 – that’s the proton count for a completely different element, not chromium.

Neutrons are mass number minus protons: 52 − 24 = 28. That rules out B, which pairs the correct proton count with n = 24 – just repeating the proton number instead of doing the subtraction.

Electrons: a neutral chromium atom would have 24, matching its protons, but the 3+ charge means three electrons have been removed: 24 − 3 = 21. This is where E almost gets there – it has the right protons (24) and the right electrons (21), but still has n = 24, having skipped the neutron subtraction entirely.

Putting the three together: p = 24, n = 28, e = 21. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Full explanation

1. BeCl₂

Central atom: Be (2 valence electrons)

Each Cl forms a single bond with Be → 2 bonding pairs, no lone pairs.

Electron geometry: linear

Bond angle: 180°

2. C₂H₂ Structure: H–C≡C–H Each carbon is sp-hybridized: 2 electron regions (one triple bond + one single bond)

Linear geometry around each C Bond angle: 180° 3. CCl₄ Central atom: C 4 bonding pairs (C–Cl bonds), no lone pairs Electron geometry: tetrahedral Bond angle: 109.5° Therefore, BeCl₂ and C₂H₂ contain bond angles of 180°.

Full explanation

1. VO₃⁻

Let vanadium = x

x + 3(O) = -1 → x + 3(2) = -1 → x = +5

2. V³⁺

This is a simple ion: Oxidation state of V = +3

3. V²⁺

Oxidation state of V = +2

4. VO²⁺

Let vanadium = x

x + O = +2 → x + (-2) = +2 → x = +4

5. VO₂⁺

Let vanadium = x

x + 2(O) = +1 → x + 2 (-2) = +1 → x = +5

VO₃⁻ and VO₂⁺ both have vanadium in the +5 oxidation state.

Full explanation

First, define variables for the two shorter sides (legs) of the right-angled triangle. Let the shorter side be x cm, so the other shorter side is twice as long, 2x cm.

The area of a right-angled triangle is given by: Area = ½ × base × height = ½ × x × 2x = x².

Given the area is 18 cm²: x² = 18 ⇒ x = √18 = 3√2 cm.

Therefore, the other side is: 2x = 2 × 3√2 = 6√2 cm.

Now, we can calculate the hypotenuse using the Pythagorean theorem: Hypotenuse = √(x² + (2x)²) = √((3√2)² + (6√2)²) = √(18 + 72) = √90 = 3√10 cm.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

Full explanation

Joule (J) is the unit of energy or work, and metre (m) is the unit of distance. Therefore, joules per metre (J/m) represents energy per unit distance.

Let’s analyse the options: kinetic energy is a form of energy, so its unit is the Joule. Momentum is the product of mass and velocity, so its unit is kilogram-metre per second (kg·m/s). Power is work done per unit time, so its unit is Joule per second (J/s), or Watts. Work done is force times distance (W = F·d), so its unit is Joules (J).

Force is work per unit distance (F = W/d), so its unit is Joule per metre (J/m).

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Full explanation

Start by factoring the denominator of the first fraction. x² − 1 is a difference of two squares, so it splits into x² − 1 = (x − 1)(x + 1).

With that factored, the original expression looks like this:

2(x − 1)(x + 1)−1x − 1

To subtract two fractions they need a common denominator. The first one already has (x − 1)(x + 1) on the bottom; the second is missing the (x + 1) factor, so multiply its top and bottom by (x + 1):

2(x − 1)(x + 1)−x + 1(x − 1)(x + 1)

Now both fractions share the same denominator, so subtract the numerators directly:

2 − (x + 1)(x − 1)(x + 1)=1 − x(x − 1)(x + 1)

The numerator 1 − x is the same thing as −(x − 1) — check it by distributing the minus sign: −(x − 1) = −x + 1, which is exactly 1 − x. Writing it that way is the useful move here, because (x − 1) now appears in both the top and the bottom and cancels out:

−(x − 1)(x − 1)(x + 1)=−1x + 1

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Full explanation

Firstly, we find the coordinates of points A and B.

For A(a, 0), set y = 0: x/4 + 0/6 = 1 ⇒ x = 4 ⇒ A(4, 0).

For B(0, b), set x = 0: 0/4 + y/6 = 1 ⇒ y = 6 ⇒ B(0, 6).

Now, the centre of the circle is the midpoint of AB, since AB is the diameter: [(4 + 0)/2, (0 + 6)/2] = (2, 3).

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Full explanation

To achieve the maximum resistance, connect all resistors in series: total resistance in series is R_max = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ = 6.0 + 6.0 + 6.0 = 18.0 Ω.

To achieve the minimum resistance, connect all resistors in parallel: total resistance in parallel satisfies 1/R_min = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂ + 1/R₃ = 1/6.0 + 1/6.0 + 1/6.0 = 3/6.0 = 1/2.0, so R_min = 2.0 Ω.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Full explanation

Let the supports be at point A (left end) and B (right end). Taking moments about support A: the 300 N weight is placed 1.0 m from A, so its position is 1.0 m; the 500 N weight is placed 1.0 m from B, so its position is 4.0 m from A; support B exerts an upward force R_B at 5.0 m from A.

The sum of moments about A must be zero for equilibrium, so the clockwise moments (due to the weights) equal the counter-clockwise moment (due to support B): 300 × 1.0 + 500 × 4.0 = R_B × 5.0.

300 + 2000 = 5R_B ⇒ R_B = 2300/5 = 460 N.

Now, the sum of upward forces must equal the sum of downward forces: R_A + R_B = 300 + 500 ⇒ R_A + 460 = 800 ⇒ R_A = 800 − 460 = 340 N.

So, the upward force from support A is 340 N and from support B is 460 N.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Full explanation

Let’s analyse each statement.

Statement 1: correct. As the ball rises, its speed decreases (so it loses kinetic energy) and its height increases (so it gains potential energy).

Statement 2: incorrect. The acceleration is constant (10 m/s² downward) due to gravity — it does not change as the ball falls.

Statement 3: incorrect. The gravitational force always acts downward on the ball, even at its maximum height.

So, only statement 1 is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Full explanation

First, multiply x and y: xy = (3 × 10^m) × (5 × 10ⁿ) = 15 × 10^m+n.

Now, convert to scientific notation: xy = 15 × 10^m+n = 1.5 × 10 × 10^m+n = 1.5 × 10^m+n+1.

So, xy = 1.5 × 10^m+n+1.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).