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IMAT 2018 · Answers & Worked Solution

IMAT 2018 Answers & Worked Solution

All 60 answers, solved and explained — General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics. Verified line by line by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team.

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General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning

Current affairs, history, culture, logical and critical-thinking problems · 22 questions
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Alpha, Beta and Gamma are the three political parties in the Parliament.

There are 360 seats in the Parliament. Before last week’s General Election, each party held 120 seats.

In last week’s election:

There was no change in 216 seats.

Alpha gained 15 seats from Beta and 23 seats from Gamma.

Beta gained 31 seats from Alpha and 41 seats from Gamma.

Gamma gained 24 seats from Alpha and 10 seats from Beta.

Which pie chart, suitably labelled, shows the current state of the parties in the Parliament?

  • A
    IMAT 2018 question 1 pie chart option A
  • B
    IMAT 2018 question 1 pie chart option B
  • C
    IMAT 2018 question 1 pie chart option C
  • D
    IMAT 2018 question 1 pie chart option D
  • E
    IMAT 2018 question 1 pie chart option E (correct)
Correct answer: E Chart E (seats after the election: Alpha 103, Beta 167, Gamma 90)

Full explanation

PartyInitial seatsNet changeTotal after election
Alpha120+15 (from Beta) +23 (from Gamma) −31 (to Beta) −24 (to Gamma)103 — about 28.6% of the circle, just under one third
Beta120−15 (to Alpha) +31 (from Alpha) +41 (from Gamma) −10 (to Gamma)167 — about 46.4% of the circle, just under half
Gamma120−23 (to Alpha) −41 (to Beta) +24 (from Alpha) +10 (from Beta)90 — exactly 25% of the circle, one quarter

103 + 167 + 90 = 360, matching the 360 total seats in the Parliament, so the arithmetic is consistent.

The pie chart whose three slices match these proportions (Alpha just under a third, Beta just under half, Gamma exactly a quarter) is chart E.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Summary to learn

A pie chart represents each category as a slice whose angle (and area) is proportional to that category’s share of the whole. When a scenario describes several rounds of gains and losses between categories, the running total for each one is found by adding every gain and subtracting every loss from its starting value, and the three (or more) resulting totals should always add back up to the fixed overall total — a useful check before matching them to slice sizes.

The bar chart below shows the number of endangered species between 2000 and 2002 per animal class.

IMAT 2018 question 2 figure
Which one of the following pieces of information can be inferred from the bar chart above?

  • AThe number of species of insects that were endangered was almost equal to the number of species of fish that were endangered over the three-year period.
  • BThe number of endangered species of mammals remained constant over the three-year Period.
  • CThe number of endangered species of reptiles increased over the three-year period while that of amphibians decreased.
  • DIn 2001, there were exactly four times as many endangered species of birds as there were endangered species of reptiles.
  • EMore species of bird became endangered over the three-year period than any other animal class.
Correct answer: A The number of species of insects that were endangered was almost equal to the number of species of fish that were endangered over the three-year period.

Full explanation

Option A : Correct. The Fish and Insects sectors have the most similar number of endangered species.

Option B : Incorrect. The Mammals sector experienced an increase in endangered species in 2001.

Option C : Incorrect. There was a decreasing trend in the number of endangered reptile species.

Option D : Incorrect. Number of endangered reptile species is about 225 while that of Birds is around 1200. The difference is not fourfold.

Option E : Incorrect. Amphibians experienced the greatest increase in the number of endangered species over the three-year period.

Summary to learn

A bar chart only supports conclusions that follow directly from the height of the bars actually shown. A valid inference compares quantities that are genuinely close, states a trend that the bars genuinely display across every year shown, or notices a numerical relationship (such as one category being roughly a fixed multiple of another) that actually holds when the bar heights are read carefully — anything beyond that, however plausible-sounding, is not something the chart itself establishes.

Competition between restaurants is fierce and restaurateurs are trying to gain recognition for the quality of their food. Research from Oxford University might just give them that edge over their competitors. More than a hundred people participated in a series of experiments to see if the taste of food was affected by the cutlery used to eat it. The study found that desserts tasted better when eaten using small spoons. Similarly yoghurt tastes creamier when eaten with a black spoon. Cheese cut with a heavy knife tasted more expensive than cheese cut with a lighter knife.

Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?

  • APeople choose restaurants only because of the quality of the food.
  • BRestaurants should think carefully about what cutlery they use.
  • CRestaurants should pay less attention to food presentation.
  • DCustomers pay attention to the cutlery they are using.
  • EVariety of cutlery is more important than quality of food.
Correct answer: B Restaurants should think carefully about what cutlery they use.

Full explanation

The passage explains how the taste perception of food changes based on the cutlery used (e.g., small spoons, black spoons, heavy knives). This implies that cutlery choice influences customer experience, which could give restaurants a competitive advantage.

Option A : Incorrect. The passage suggests other factors, like cutlery, influence perception.

Option B : Correct. Every finding in the passage shows a physical detail of the utensil (spoon size, spoon colour, knife weight) changing how food is perceived, without the diner ever consciously choosing or noticing that detail themselves. Since it is the restaurant, not the customer, that decides what cutlery to use, the conclusion that follows directly from this evidence is that restaurants — not diners — should think carefully about their cutlery choices.

Option C : Incorrect. The passage doesn’t mention food presentation at all.

Option D : Incorrect. The research focuses on unconscious taste perception, not conscious attention to cutlery.

Option E : Incorrect. The study doesn’t compare cutlery importance versus food quality.

Summary to learn

A conclusion drawn from a set of research findings should sit at the same level of generality as the evidence itself: broad enough to unify the separate results, but no stronger or more specific than what was actually tested. When several findings all show that a physical detail of tableware changes how people perceive an experience without anyone consciously noticing why, the safe conclusion is about that detail mattering to whoever controls it, not about customers themselves being consciously aware of it — the studies specifically describe an unconscious effect.

It’s better for your children’s health to give them a video game to play than to let them watch television. Researchers at Queensland University examined the effects of video gaming and watching television on children between the ages of two and five. They found that the children burned more calories when they were gaming than when they were watching television; higher blood pressure was associated with watching television, but not with video gaming. The scientists believe that the difference comes from two distinct kinds of screen time: passive screen time, where you are simply viewing programmes or films, and active screen time, where you are engaging both your mind and your body.

Which one of the following is the main conclusion of the above argument?

  • APlaying video games helps to reduce children’s blood pressure.
  • BWatching television does not stimulate children’s minds.
  • CVideo gaming engages both the mind and the body.
  • DVideo gaming is better for children’s health than watching television.
  • EChildren burn more calories when they play video games than when they watch television.
Correct answer: D Video gaming is better for children’s health than watching television.

Full explanation

Option A : Incorrect. This is too specific and not stated in the passage. The study only says blood pressure was higher with TV, not that gaming actively reduces it.

Option B : Incorrect. This is an assumption, not a conclusion. The passage suggests passive screen time (like TV) doesn’t engage the mind, but it’s not the main message.

Option C : Incorrect. This is a supporting point used to explain why gaming might be healthier, not the main conclusion.

Option D : Correct. This is the main conclusion of the argument. The entire passage builds toward supporting this idea using calorie burning, blood pressure, and mental engagement as evidence.

Option E : Incorrect. This is another piece of supporting evidence, not the main point. It helps build the argument that video gaming is healthier.

Summary to learn

The main conclusion of an argument is the single overall claim that every other statement in the passage exists to support, as distinct from any one supporting fact mentioned along the way. When a passage cites several separate pieces of evidence (calories burned, blood pressure, mental engagement) that all point toward one comparative claim about two activities, that comparative claim is the conclusion, while each individual piece of evidence is only a premise contributing to it.

In a family, each of the six children has one packet of crisps on each weekday (Monday to Friday) for their packed lunch. The triplets have Cheese flavoured crisps, the twins have Paprika flavoured crisps, and the oldest child always has Chilli flavoured crisps. The exact number of packets of crisps needed are purchased at the same time for the four-week period.

The table below shows the price of single packets of crisps and multipacks of crisps of the same flavour. A multipack is a discounted collection of a number of single packets of one flavour.

IMAT 2018 question 5 figure
What is the most money that can be saved for the four weeks by purchasing the appropriate combination of multipacks and single packs of the different flavours rather than all single packs?

  • A£43.50
  • B£23.50
  • C£8.00
  • D£18.00
  • E£16.50
Correct answer: E £16.5

Full explanation

Each of the 6 children eats one packet a day, 5 days a week, for 4 weeks: 5 × 4 = 20 packets per child. With 3 triplets (Cheese), 2 twins (Paprika) and 1 oldest child (Chilli), that’s 3 × 20 = 60 Cheese packets, 2 × 20 = 40 Paprika packets, and 1 × 20 = 20 Chilli packets — 120 packets in total, bought separately by flavour since multipacks only discount packets of the same flavour.

Buying all 120 as single packets would cost 120 × £0.50 = £60.00. Since every multipack is cheaper per packet than buying singly, the biggest saving for each flavour comes from covering as much of its packet count as possible with the largest multipacks that still add up exactly, topping up any remainder with smaller packs or singles:

60 Cheese packets: a 36-pack plus a 24-pack covers all 60 exactly — £12.50 + £8.50 = £21.00.

40 Paprika packets: a 36-pack leaves 4 packets over, bought as 4 singles — £12.50 + (4 × £0.50) = £12.50 + £2.00 = £14.50.

20 Chilli packets: a 12-pack plus a 6-pack leaves 2 packets over, bought as 2 singles — £4.50 + £2.50 + (2 × £0.50) = £4.50 + £2.50 + £1.00 = £8.00.

Total minimum cost = £21.00 + £14.50 + £8.00 = £43.50.

Saving compared to buying all 120 as single packets = £60.00 − £43.50 = £16.50.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Summary to learn

When a product is sold both individually and in fixed-size discounted bundles, the cheapest way to buy a specific exact quantity is usually to use the largest bundles that divide into (or nearly into) that quantity, since bulk packs almost always cost less per individual unit, and then to cover whatever remainder is left over with smaller packs or single units. This greedy strategy should still be checked case by case, since an odd remainder can occasionally make a different combination cheaper overall.

Sperm whales have the largest brains on the planet, although both humans and dolphins have larger brains relative to their body size. But why should relative brain size be important? If one thinks of a brain as a computer, there is no obvious reason why it must be sized in proportion to the body it lives in. Why for example should a whale need an especially large brain, when a hummingbird — which has complex tasks to perform — manages with a tiny one?

Which one of the following is a conclusion that is supported by the above passage?

  • ABrain size and the ability to perform complex tasks are not necessarily related.
  • BHummingbirds and whales have equally complex tasks to perform, despite the huge difference in brain size.
  • CDolphins are more intelligent than whales.
  • DThere is no important difference between a brain and a computer.
  • EWhales need larger brains than either dolphins or humans because of their enormous size.
Correct answer: A Brain size and the ability to perform complex tasks are not necessarily related.

Full explanation

The author questions the importance of relative brain size by pointing out that animals like hummingbirds can do complex tasks with small brains, suggesting that a big brain isn’t always needed for complexity.

Option A : Correct. The passage uses the hummingbird as a counter-example: a tiny brain that nonetheless manages complex tasks. A single genuine counter-example like this is enough to support the general conclusion that brain size and the ability to perform complex tasks aren’t necessarily related — it doesn’t prove the reverse (that a large brain never helps), and it says nothing about intelligence specifically, which is a different concept the passage never raises.

Option B : Incorrect. This is too specific and not stated. The passage only uses the hummingbird as an example to challenge the idea that a big brain equals complexity.

Option C : Incorrect. The passage only says dolphins have larger brains relative to body size, but intelligence isn’t discussed or concluded.

Option D : Incorrect. The passage uses a computer as a metaphor, but doesn’t claim there’s no difference.

Option E : Incorrect. The passage mainly questions the idea of the importance of brain size, not its relation between brain size and body size.

Summary to learn

A single well-chosen counter-example can support a general conclusion by showing that a common assumption doesn’t always hold. If one small-brained animal is known to carry out complex behaviour, that one case is already enough to conclude that a large brain is not strictly necessary for complexity — though it says nothing about the reverse claim (that a large brain never helps), nor about intelligence more broadly, which is a separate concept the passage doesn’t address.

Food manufacturers should reduce sugar levels in processed foods. This is because there are too many overweight and obese people. Since people are unable or unwilling to make sensible decisions for themselves, manufacturers must take responsibility for rectifying a problem to which they contribute.

Which one of the following illustrates the principle used in the above argument?

  • ACigarette packets should have plain packaging and display government health warnings.
  • BIn order to reduce sugar intake, foods with high sugar content should be taxed more heavily.
  • CPower tools should have clear instructions in order to reduce the number of accidents caused by incorrect use.
  • DLabelling on food should be improved so that consumers are clear about the level of sugar in a product.
  • ETo reduce the number of deaths caused by excessive speed, car manufacturers should incorporate speed limiters in vehicles.
Correct answer: E To reduce the number of deaths caused by excessive speed, car manufacturers should incorporate speed limiters in vehicles.

Full explanation

In this passage, the core principle is that when people cannot or do not make healthy choices themselves, companies contributing to the problem should take responsibility. We have to look for an option that follows the same logic. Eliminate options that shift the responsibility to the government or individual.

Option A : This is government intervention, not manufacturer responsibility. It’s a different principle than the one in the argument.

Option B : Again, this is a government policy, not an example of manufacturers taking responsibility.

Option C : This is about user safety through information, but not because users are irresponsible. It lacks the key idea of producers stepping in when users can’t be trusted.

Option D : This assumes consumers will make better choices if better informed — it puts the responsibility on individuals, not on manufacturers, which contradicts the principle.

Option E : This follows the same principle: people (drivers) may not act responsibly (drive safely), so manufacturers should step in and implement a safety feature.

Summary to learn

Two arguments share the same underlying principle only when their structural roles match exactly: who or what is failing to act in their own best interest, who is contributing to the resulting problem, and who is therefore asked to step in and fix it. An option that changes any one of these roles — for instance shifting the responsibility onto the government or onto better-informed individuals, rather than onto the party that contributes to the problem — is not a genuine structural match, no matter how similar its subject matter looks on the surface.

Action has to be taken now to stop the spread of bovine tuberculosis (TB). Experts agree that reducing the number of badgers in the most heavily infected areas will help to break the cycle of infection between badgers and cattle and begin to reduce TB in both species. Although badgers can be vaccinated, there is no vaccine available to protect our cattle, and best estimates suggest it will be ten years before one is available. The only way to stop bovine TB spreading is to kill badgers.

Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the above argument?

  • AFive annual vaccinations are necessary to protect a badger fully against bovine TB.
  • BLess than ten percent of the dairy cows destroyed each year are destroyed because of bovine TB.
  • CIn a trial, killing ten thousand badgers reduced the TB rate in cattle by only fifteen per cent.
  • DShooting large numbers of badgers is more expensive than vaccinating them.
  • EWhen efforts are made to remove badgers, many are injured rather than killed outright.
Correct answer: A Five annual vaccinations are necessary to protect a badger fully against bovine TB.

Full explanation

First, check the conclusion : The only way to stop bovine TB spreading is to kill badgers.

Several facts are given to support this conclusion. Something that strengthens these premises would strengthen the argument.

Option A : This strengthens the argument because it highlights a major weakness of vaccination — it’s slow and impractical for quick action. This supports the idea that killing badgers is the only viable short-term solution.

Option B : This actually weakens the argument. If TB affects relatively few cows, then drastic action like killing badgers seems less justified.

Option C : This weakens the argument because it questions the effectiveness of killing badgers.

Option D : This may undermine the argument by making vaccination seem more cost-effective, even if it’s slower.

Option E : This weakens the argument by raising ethical and welfare concerns, making the practice of killing badgers less acceptable.

Summary to learn

An argument concluding that one course of action is the ONLY viable solution is strengthened most directly by evidence that rules a competing option out completely, since that reinforces the word “only” itself. Evidence that merely makes the proposed action seem more costly, less effective in a trial, or ethically uncomfortable does the opposite — it weakens the case for that action rather than closing off its alternative.

A regular tetrahedron is made by fastening together four triangles made from card coloured on one side only, as shown in the diagram below.

IMAT 2018 question 9 figure
Which one of the following is NOT a possible view of this tetrahedron when looked at from above?

  • A
    IMAT 2018 question 9 answer option A
  • B
    IMAT 2018 question 9 answer option B
  • C
    IMAT 2018 question 9 answer option C
  • D
    IMAT 2018 question 9 answer option D
  • E
    IMAT 2018 question 9 answer option E
Correct answer: D

Full explanation

To answer this question, we must check the direction : clockwise or anticlockwise.

Option A : In the given diagram, P-B-G goes in an anti-clockwise direction. So, it is the same direction as the image in the option.

Option B : In the given diagram, R-G-B goes in an anticlockwise direction, the same direction as the image in the option.

Option C : R-P-G goes in an anticlockwise direction, the same direction as the image in the option.

Option D : R-P-G goes in an anticlockwise direction, while the image in the option goes in clockwise direction. Thus, this is not a possible view of the tetrahedron when looked down.

Option E : B-R-P goes in a clockwise direction, the same direction as the image in the option.

Summary to learn

Judging whether a folded three-dimensional view is genuinely possible from a flat net relies on tracking the rotational direction — clockwise or anticlockwise — in which a set of labelled faces appears around a shared vertex or viewing point. This directional sense (chirality) is preserved under any rotation of the folded shape, but is reversed by a mirror-image flip, so a labelled view that has the wrong rotational sense for its net cannot be a genuine view of it, however plausible it looks at first glance.

You want to buy a house in your local area with three bedrooms and a garage. However, you only want to spend €150,000. Houses in your local area with three bedrooms and a garage never sell for less than €200,000. You will have to spend more to get the house you want.

Which one of the following most closely matches the logical structure of the above argument?

  • AYou want a well-paid job with lots of holiday and the chance to retire early. Such jobs do not exist, so you need to adjust your expectations.
  • BYou want to study mathematics but you don’t like numerical reasoning. Mathematics is essentially numerical reasoning, so you should choose a different subject.
  • CYou want a large powerful car that is fuel efficient. Large powerful cars are never fuel efficient, so you will have to spend more on fuel if you want a large powerful car.
  • DYou want to buy the painting at the auction. Lots of other people want to buy it, so you have to be prepared to bid a lot of money to be successful.
  • EYou want either the green jacket or the blue jacket. The green jacket looks good and the blue jacket is a bargain, so there are advantages in buying either one.
Correct answer: C You want a large powerful car that is fuel efficient. Large powerful cars are never fuel efficient, so you will have to spend more on fuel if you want a large powerful car.

Full explanation

Argument’s structure is desire vs reality structure, ending with a necessary adjustment (you must spend more).

Option A : This ends with “adjust expectations”, not “spend more” or make a sacrifice. Close, but slightly different conclusion structure.

Option B : This is about contradictory preferences and choosing something else. Different structure.

Option C : Same structure. Desire is a large, powerful, fuel-efficient car. But in reality, these cars are never fuel efficient. Thus, you’ll need to spend more (on fuel) to get what you want.

Option D : This is about competition, not an inherent cost barrier. Different reasoning.

Option E : This has no conflict or constraint, and no forced adjustment. Very different logic.

Summary to learn

Two arguments share the same logical structure only when they follow the same abstract pattern — here, a stated desire, a real-world fact that makes achieving that desire in its cheapest form impossible, and a forced compromise or extra cost as a result. Matching this structure means checking that another scenario has all three of these elements in the same roles, not just a superficially similar topic or a vaguely similar feeling of disappointment.

One of the populations with the highest life expectancy is Iceland. The people there are very healthy, as indicated by the low incidence of diabetes, obesity, heart disease and diet related cancers. Their diet is rich in good quality local fish, and meat and dairy products from grass fed animals. The fish and meat is all caught, produced and processed on a small scale. If we want to live long and healthy lives we should adopt the Icelanders’ diet.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?

  • AThere may be other reasons for the Icelanders’ health and longevity.
  • BPeople may not like being told what they should eat.
  • CThe Icelandic diet may be prohibitively expensive elsewhere.
  • DThere may be insufficient space in many countries to raise grass fed animals.
  • EVegetarians may not be able to live on an Icelandic diet.
Correct answer: A There may be other reasons for the Icelanders’ health and longevity.

Full explanation

Conclusion of the given passage is that if we want to be healthy and live long lives, we should adopt the Icelandic diet. The argument assumes that diet is the only or primary reason for their health and long life. It ignores other possible contributing factors.

Option A : This directly points out the flaw in the logic — the oversimplified cause-effect assumption between diet and life expectancy.

Option B : Irrelevant — this is about preference, not about the logic of the argument.

Option C : Practical concern, but not a logical flaw in the argument itself.

Option D : Again, practical feasibility, not a critique of the reasoning.

Option E : This is about applicability, not the logical validity of the claim.

Summary to learn

Concluding that one single factor (such as diet) is responsible for a group’s positive outcome (such as long, healthy lives) overlooks every other factor that differs between that group and everyone else — genetics, climate, activity levels, healthcare access, and so on. This oversimplified single-cause reasoning is a distinct flaw from mistaking a mere correlation for causation: here, no comparison group or statistical link is even established, just an assumption that the one factor mentioned must be the explanation.

Recent research in the USA has found that areas with more dentists per person have much lower rates of obesity than neighbouring areas of similar population size. Clearly, public health authorities concerned with obesity rates should focus more resources on the provision of dental care. Dentists are a neglected asset in the struggle against the serious health problems associated with obesity.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?

  • AIt assumes dental care in the USA is somewhat similar to that found elsewhere.
  • BIt assumes that obesity rates should be a priority concern for public health authorities.
  • CIt ignores factors that might prevent public health authorities from spending more on obesity and related conditions.
  • DIt ignores the fact that help and advice concerning obesity can be delivered in a variety of ways.
  • EIt assumes that a higher number of dentists causes lower obesity rates.
Correct answer: E It assumes that a higher number of dentists causes lower obesity rates.

Full explanation

– Observation: Areas with more dentists per person have lower obesity rates than similar neighbouring areas.

– Conclusion: Public health authorities should invest more in dental care to fight obesity.

– Assumption: Dentists somehow help cause lower obesity rates — so increasing dentists will reduce obesity.

– Flaw in the reasoning : relationship between number of dentists and obesity rates is a correlation, not proof of causation.

Option A : Irrelevant. The argument is entirely about the USA.

Option B : That’s not the logical flaw — the argument already starts with that premise.

Option C : A practical concern, not a logical flaw in the reasoning.

Option D : True, but doesn’t address the flaw of assuming causation from correlation.

Option E : Correct. This directly addresses the causation-correlation fallacy, which is the core flaw in the argument.

Summary to learn

Correlation is not the same as causation: two things changing together (here, more dentists and lower obesity in the same areas) does not by itself prove that one causes the other. Both could instead be caused by some third factor — such as a wealthier or more health-conscious population that supports more dentists and also happens to have lower obesity — and an argument that leaps from a correlation straight to a causal recommendation, without ruling out such alternative explanations, commits this classic causation-correlation fallacy.

David normally takes 45 minutes to walk at a steady speed in a straight line from his house, past his friend Barry’s house and then past a shop to reach his college.

Today, however, he stopped at Barry’s house on the way and had to wait 3 minutes for him to be ready to leave. They stopped at the shop to buy their lunch, which took another 3 minutes.

It normally takes David 20 minutes to walk from his home directly to the shop and Barry normally takes 32 minutes to walk directly from his home to the college and they both walk at the same steady speed.

How long does it take them to walk from Barry’s house to the shop?

  • A7 minutes
  • B1 minute
  • C13 minutes
  • D4 minutes
  • E10 minutes
Correct answer: A 7 minutes

Full explanation

IMAT 2018 question 13 figure

David’s route is a straight line: home → Barry’s house → shop → college, and everyone here walks at the same steady speed, so time along any stretch of the route is proportional to its length.

Home to shop normally takes 20 minutes (home → Barry’s + Barry’s → shop = 20 minutes), and home to college normally takes David 45 minutes (the whole route). So shop → college = 45 − 20 = 25 minutes.

Barry’s house to college takes Barry 32 minutes (Barry’s → shop + shop → college = 32 minutes). Subtracting the shop → college time just found: Barry’s → shop = 32 − 25 = 7 minutes.

Summary to learn

When someone walks an entire route at one constant speed, the time taken between any two points on that route is directly proportional to the distance between them, so the times for different stretches of the same journey can be added and subtracted exactly like the distances themselves. This lets an unknown middle segment’s time be isolated by comparing two different door-to-door totals that each include some, but not all, of the same stretches.

The table below shows how to choose an appropriate glue for different materials you may want to bond together. For example, to bond cork and rubber you can use either rubber contact glue or epoxy glue.

IMAT 2018 question 14 figure
Key B — acrylic cement C — balsa cement D — PVA glue E — synthetic resin glue F — cyanoacrylate (superglue)

G — rubber contact glue H — latex glue I — epoxy glue J — polyester resin Which one of the following statements is supported by the information in the table?

  • AAcrylic can be bonded to polystyrene using cyanoacrylate.
  • BSynthetic resin glue can only be used to glue wood materials together.
  • CBalsa cement can only be used to glue balsa wood to another material.
  • DThe only materials that are suitable for bonding together with three different types of glue are cork with cork.
  • EPolystyrene and card can only be bonded with rubber contact glue.
Correct answer: B Synthetic resin glue can only be used to glue wood materials together.

Full explanation

Option A : According to the table, to bond acrylic and polystyrene, PVA glue or latex glue can be used, not cyanoacrylate. Thus, this option is false.

Option B : It is true that synthetic resin glue is only used for bonding wood materials together (plywood and balsa wood (or) 2 plywood)

Option C : Incorrect. Glue C (balsa cement) isn’t reserved for balsa wood – the table lists it for card + plywood and for card bonded to itself, and neither of those pairings involves balsa wood at all. So balsa cement clearly isn’t limited to gluing balsa wood to something else.

Option D : Incorrect. Card + acrylic does support 3 different glues (D, F, I) – but so does cork + cork, which the table lists as D, G, J, also three options. Since two different pairings each offer 3 types of glue, cork + cork clearly isn’t the only one, which is exactly why this option is wrong.

Option E : Incorrect. Polystyrene and card can be bonded with PVA glue, not rubber contact glue.

Summary to learn

A table listing which options are compatible with which criteria can disprove a claim that something is the “only” one satisfying a condition just by finding a single other entry in the table that also satisfies it. Conversely, confirming that some entry is used exclusively for one purpose requires checking that it never appears anywhere else in the table, not just that it fits the case mentioned.

Mr and Mrs Massa’s rectangular lawn measures 10 metres by 6 metres. They pay Giovanni to cut the grass and trim the edges. Giovanni charges a fixed rate per square metre of grass to be cut and another fixed rate per metre of edge to be trimmed. For Mr and Mrs Massa’s lawn, this results in a charge of $12 to cut the grass and $8 to trim the edges.

Now, Mr and Mrs Costa next door want Giovanni to do the same for them. Their lawn is also rectangular and measures 15 metres by 9 metres.

If he charges them at the same rate as the Massas, how much will Giovanni charge Mr and Mrs Costa, in total, for cutting their grass and trimming their edges?

  • A$35
  • B$30
  • C$45
  • D$39
  • E$36
Correct answer: D $39

Full explanation

According to the given information, Mr and Mrs Massa’s lawn has 60 square meters in area and 32 meters in perimeter.

Giovanni charges a fixed rate per square metre of grass to be cut and another fixed rate per metre of edge to be trimmed.

Since he charges 12$ to cut the grass – it is for 60 square meters, the rate is 1$ per 5 meter squared. ((60)/(12))

To trim the edges : 8$ per 32 meter – so, the rate is 1$ per 4m. ((32)/(8))

Mr and Mrs Costa’s lawn has 135 square meters in area with 48 m in perimeter.

Cost to cut the grass = (135)/(5) = 27$ Cost to trim the edges = (48)/(4) = 12$ Total = 27 + 12 = 39$

Summary to learn

When a service is billed at one fixed rate per unit of a measurable quantity (such as per square metre of area, or per metre of edge), that rate can be recovered by dividing any known total charge by the corresponding known quantity for that same job. The same rate then applies unchanged to a different job, letting a new charge be calculated directly from that job’s own measurements.

A leaking undersea oil well in the USA caused massive damage to wildlife and was extremely expensive to clear up. Worst of all, it destroyed the livelihoods of poor people living in the area. Despite this, in the developed world we still don’t take seriously the risks of deepwater drilling. Until we can be satisfied that regulation is effective and that oil companies are operating safely, deepwater drilling should be banned.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument?

  • AThe risks of deepwater drilling were known prior to the accident in the USA.
  • BOil companies involved in the accident in the USA paid money to compensate the victims.
  • CA ban on deepwater drilling would cause oil prices to rise, which would affect poor people most.
  • DOil companies will operate more safely in future than they did before the accident in the USA.
  • EAlternatives to fossil fuels may eventually be able to meet our energy needs.
Correct answer: C A ban on deepwater drilling would cause oil prices to rise, which would affect poor people most.

Full explanation

In the given paragraph, the conclusion is that Deepwater drilling should be banned until regulations are proven effective and companies are shown to be operating safely. And the main supporting reason is that it destroyed the livelihoods of the poor. There are also other environmental and social damages.

Option A : This doesn’t weaken the argument. In fact, it might strengthen it by showing the risks were ignored.

Option B : Compensation after damage doesn’t reduce the risk of future disasters. So it doesn’t challenge the call for a ban.

Option C : This introduces a new concern which challenges the main concern about the poor people. This effectively weakens the argument by challenging the premise.

Option D : The ban is not all about due to safety.

Option E : This supports moving away from oil, which might even support the ban.

Summary to learn

An argument built mainly on one specific harm caused by the status quo is weakened most directly by evidence that the proposed remedy would itself inflict a comparable harm on the very people the argument is trying to protect — this undercuts the argument’s central supporting reason rather than a peripheral detail. Evidence about other, unrelated harms or benefits of the current situation has much less effect on this particular argument, since it doesn’t touch the specific harm the conclusion rests on.

A 300 g packet of Scottish oatcakes has the following information on the side of the packet:

IMAT 2018 question 17 figure
How many oatcakes are there in the packet?

  • A23
  • B24
  • C18
  • D29
  • E21
Correct answer: A 23

Full explanation

Pick any one nutrient that’s listed both per 100 g and per oatcake, scale its per-100 g value up to the full 300 g packet, then divide by its per-oatcake value. Using saturated fat: the packet contains 5.4 g × 3 = 16.2 g of saturated fat in total, and one oatcake contains 0.7 g, so the packet holds 16.2 ÷ 0.7 = 23.1 oatcakes.

Since only a whole number of oatcakes can actually be in the packet, this rounds down to 23 oatcakes.

As a check, the energy column gives the same answer: 462 kcal × 3 = 1386 kcal in the packet, and 1386 ÷ 60 kcal per oatcake = 23.1, confirming 23 oatcakes.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Summary to learn

A nutrition label gives each value in two aligned columns — per 100 g and per serving (here, per oatcake) — and these two columns must stay internally consistent with each other for every nutrient listed. Once a food’s total package weight is known, any one nutrient’s per-100 g value can be scaled up to the package’s actual weight, and dividing that scaled total by the same nutrient’s per-serving value recovers the number of servings in the package; checking the answer against a second nutrient column is a reliable way to catch an arithmetic slip.

A train is travelling at 30 mph towards a terminus which is 120 miles away.

At the same time, a pigeon starts flying from the terminus towards the train. When it meets the train, it turns and flies back towards the terminus and, when it arrives there, it turns and flies back towards the train again. The pigeon flies at an average speed of 40 mph.

The pigeon continues to do this until the train reaches the terminus.

Assuming that no time was lost in each turnaround, how far (to the nearest 10 miles) does the pigeon fly altogether?

  • A160 miles
  • B180 miles
  • C240 miles
  • D140 miles
  • E120 miles
Correct answer: A 160 miles

Full explanation

IMAT 2018 question 18 figure

Velocity of train = 30 mph

Velocity of bird = 40 mph

Pigeon flies in a way that when it meets the train, it turns and flies back towards the terminus and, when it arrives there, it turns and flies back towards the train again. In other words, the pigeon flies back and forth until the train arrives at the terminal. And the question asks how far does the pigeon travel. So, we can find the time taken for the train to arrive at the terminal and then use that time to find the distance the pigeon travels.

Time taken for train to arrive : t = (s)/(v) = (120 miles)/(30 mph) = 4 hours Distance the pigeon travels : s = v × t = 40mph × 4hr = 160 miles

Summary to learn

When an object moves back and forth at a constant speed for a fixed total duration, the total distance it covers is simply that speed multiplied by the total time available — the back-and-forth turning points don’t need to be tracked individually. The total time available is often set by an entirely separate, simpler calculation (here, how long the train alone takes to complete its own one-way journey), which is the key first step before working out the second object’s distance.

A puzzle is made up 20: of these three pieces. The pieces can be flipped and rotated, but they cannot overlap.

IMAT 2018 question 19 figure
Which one of the following shapes CANNOT be made using these three pieces?

  • A
    IMAT 2018 question 19 answer option A
  • B
    IMAT 2018 question 19 answer option B
  • C
    IMAT 2018 question 19 answer option C
  • D
    IMAT 2018 question 19 answer option D
  • E
    IMAT 2018 question 19 answer option E
Correct answer: E

Full explanation

The three pieces are a pentagon (a rectangle with one slanted top corner), a right-angled triangle, and a chevron (arrow-like) shape. For a candidate outline to be buildable from all three pieces without overlapping, it must be possible to draw dividing lines inside it that separate it into exactly these three shapes, in some rotation or flip.

In options A, B, C and D, that set of dividing lines can be drawn: each outline splits cleanly into the pentagon, the triangle and the chevron, just arranged differently in each case.

Option E’s outline (a plain parallelogram) cannot be divided this way — there is no way to fit all three pieces inside it without a gap or an overlap.

Therefore, the shape that cannot be made using these three pieces is option E.

IMAT 2018 question 19 figure
Summary to learn

In a jigsaw-style question asking which outline CANNOT be built from a fixed set of pieces, each candidate outline should be tested by looking for a valid set of internal dividing lines that separate it into exactly the given piece shapes, allowing any rotation or flip but no overlap and no gap. An outline is truly impossible only when no such division exists in any arrangement, not merely when the first arrangement tried doesn’t work.

‘Internet addiction’ is about to be classified as a recognised psychiatric disorder. Internet addiction is characterised by a number of signs: excessive use of the internet; anger or depression if access is lost; isolation from friends and family; and, most significantly, poor educational achievement. This should make us cautious about incorporating computer-based learning into all aspects of education. Educationalists should consider the long-term problems associated with extensive internet use as well as its immediate attractions.

Which one of the following is an assumption of the above argument?

  • AAll computer-based learning includes internet use.
  • BStudents are unable to regulate their internet use.
  • CIt is a bad idea to incorporate computer-based learning into education.
  • DClassifiying internet addiction as a recognised psychiatric disorder will help lead to a cure.
  • EExcessive internet use is the only cause of poor educational achievement.
Correct answer: A All computer-based learning includes internet use.

Full explanation

The conclusion is that to be cautious about incorporating computer-based learning into all aspects of education. And the reason is that internet addiction is about to be classified as a psychiatric disorder. Assumption is a fact that relates between reason and conclusion without expressing it explicitly. So,we can say that the link is between computer-based learning and internet addiction.

Option A : This correctly describes the link between the conclusion and supporting statement or reason. Without this assumption, the conclusion does not make sense.

Option B : The passage is not about the link between student’s disciplined use of the internet and computer-based learning. So, irrelevant.

Option C : This is more like a conclusion, not an assumption.

Option D : The passage never discusses cures. Irrevalent.

Option E : The argument doesn’t claim this. It just points to excessive internet use as a cause, not the only one.

Summary to learn

An argument’s assumption is the unstated link connecting its stated reason to its conclusion — a claim the argument needs in order for the reasoning to hold together, even though it’s never said outright. Here the stated reason concerns problems linked to internet addiction in general, while the conclusion is specifically about caution around computer-based learning, so the missing assumption must be the unstated claim that ties those two together: that computer-based learning is itself a plausible route into problematic internet use.

The Almagest is the common title of a mathematical and astronomical treatise written by

  • AClaudius Ptolemy.
  • BPythagoras.
  • CJohannes Kepler.
  • DNicolaus Copernicus.
  • EAristotle.
Correct answer: A Claudius Ptolemy.

Full explanation

Option A : The Almagest is a famous astronomical and mathematical work written in the 2nd century AD by Claudius Ptolemy, a Greco-Roman astronomer, mathematician, and geographer.

Option B : Known for mathematics and the Pythagorean theorem, lived much earlier. Option C : Proposed elliptical orbits and supported the heliocentric model.

Option D : Proposed the heliocentric model (Sun at the center).

Option E : Philosopher who supported the geocentric view but did not write the Almagest.

Summary to learn

The Almagest is a comprehensive astronomical and mathematical treatise written in the 2nd century AD by Claudius Ptolemy, a Greco-Roman scholar working in Alexandria, and it formalised the geocentric (Earth-centred) model of the universe that dominated Western and Islamic astronomy for over a thousand years. This model was later overturned by Nicolaus Copernicus’s heliocentric (Sun-centred) proposal and refined further by Johannes Kepler’s discovery that planetary orbits are elliptical rather than circular.

Which of these pairs of nation and national newspaper names is wrong?

  • AFrance — Le Monde
  • BDenmark — De Telegraaf
  • CUnited Kingdom — The Times
  • DGermany — Süddeutsche Zeitung
  • ESlovakia — Nový Čas
Correct answer: B Denmark — De Telegraaf

Full explanation

Option A : Correct. Le Monde is a major French national newspaper.

Option B : Incorrect. De Telegraaf is Dutch, not Danish. It’s a national newspaper of the Netherlands, not Denmark.

Option C : Correct. The Times is a well-known British national newspaper.

Option D : Correct. It’s a major national newspaper in Germany, based in Munich.

Option E : Correct. Nový Čas is a popular daily newspaper in Slovakia.

Summary to learn

Major national newspapers are strongly associated with their country of publication: Le Monde and The Times are flagship papers of France and the United Kingdom respectively, while Germany’s best-known national paper is based in Munich and Slovakia’s is Nový Čas. De Telegraaf, despite a name that might suggest otherwise, is the Netherlands’ leading national newspaper, not Denmark’s.

Biology

Cell biology, genetics, molecular biology & human physiology · 18 questions
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Which of the following can be a result of exercise in a healthy human?

1. a decrease in muscle pH 2. an increase in blood pH 3. more blood flows to certain organs

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B1 and 3 only
  • C1, 2 and 3
  • D3 only
  • E2 and 3 only
Correct answer: B 1 and 3 only

Full explanation

During exercise, for energy, cellular respiration is carried out first, producing Carbon dioxide (acidic) and water. Then, if the energy requirement becomes higher and oxygen becomes depleted, lactic acid fermentation takes place, producing lactic acids (also acidic).

As a result, the pH in the muscle decreases (acidic) and more carbon dioxides are carried in the blood leading to decrease in blood pH as well (acidic).

Since oxygen demand is high in active tissues like muscles during exercise, the body adapts by dilating the blood vessels to transport more blood to these areas.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3.

Summary to learn

During exercise, cellular respiration and, once oxygen supply can’t keep up with demand, anaerobic lactic acid fermentation both generate acidic by-products (carbon dioxide and lactic acid), which lower the pH of both the working muscle and, as that CO₂ and acid enter circulation, the blood as well. At the same time, active tissues like exercising muscle trigger local vasodilation, increasing blood flow specifically to the areas with the greatest oxygen and nutrient demand.

The enzyme HIV-1 protease is produced by the HIV virus.

The enzyme is formed from two identical chains of 99 amino acids. In each chain, amino acids 25, 26 and 27 in the sequence form part of the active site.

Which levels of structure control the shape of the active site of the HIV protease?

  • Aprimary, secondary and tertiary only
  • Bprimary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
  • Cprimary and quaternary only
  • Dsecondary and tertiary only
  • Equaternary only
Correct answer: B primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary

Full explanation

The key fact is that the protease is composed of 2 chains. This means that the protein is in its quaternary structure form. The shape of the active site is controlled starting from the primary structure (its amino acid sequence) till quaternary.

Summary to learn

A protein’s overall three-dimensional shape, including the precise geometry of any active site, is built up through four levels of structure: primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (local folding patterns such as alpha helices and beta sheets), tertiary (the full 3-D folding of one polypeptide chain), and quaternary (how multiple separate chains associate together). Whenever a functional protein is made of more than one polypeptide chain, as HIV-1 protease is, all four levels — including quaternary structure — contribute to shaping its active site.

Which of the following could explain why the phenotype of a healthy female child may show differences from her healthy biological brother (apart from the gender)?

1. independent assortment after the formation of the female zygote 2. crossing over between a chromosome from the sperm and a chromosome from the egg 3. random alignment of homologous chromosomes at the equator of the cell during metaphase I

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B1 only
  • C2 only
  • D2 and 3 only
  • E3 only
Correct answer: E 3 only

Full explanation

Siblings have different phenotypes because different genotypes are inherited from the parents. Difference in genotype could be due to

– Crossing over between homologous chromosomes in each gamete during the prophase I of meiosis

– Random alignment of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I

– Random fertilization of a sperm and an egg

– Mutations (rarely)

Thus, among the given statements, only statement 3 is correct.

– 1 is wrong because random fertilization should be before forming a zygote.

– 2 is wrong because crossing over occurs in each gamete (sperm or egg) not between sperm and egg.

Summary to learn

Two full siblings can differ genetically (beyond sex) through several distinct mechanisms: crossing over between homologous chromosomes, which happens within each individual gamete during prophase I of meiosis; independent assortment of homologous chromosome pairs at the metaphase I plate, which happens before fertilisation, not after; and the essentially random pairing of one particular sperm with one particular egg at fertilisation. Getting the timing of each mechanism right — which happens inside a single gamete versus which happens only once two gametes combine — is what distinguishes a correct statement from an incorrect one here.

A eukaryotic cell undergoes division. At one point it has pairs of chromosomes being separated by spindle fibres and moving towards the poles of the cell.

What stage of division is this?

  • Aanaphase in Meiosis I
  • Banaphase in Mitosis
  • Cmetaphase in Mitosis
  • Dmetaphase in Meiosis II
  • Etelophase in Meiosis I
Correct answer: A anaphase in Meiosis I

Full explanation

Identify the key points given :

– pairs of chromosomes separated (division of homologous chromosomes: Meiosis I)

– chromosomes separated (anaphase)

Thus, the phase is the anaphase of Meiosis I.

Summary to learn

What separates the anaphase of meiosis I from the anaphase of mitosis or meiosis II is exactly what is being pulled apart: in mitosis and meiosis II, individual sister chromatids of each chromosome separate and move to opposite poles, whereas in meiosis I, whole homologous chromosome PAIRS (each still made of two sister chromatids) separate from one another. Seeing paired chromosomes, rather than single chromatids, being pulled toward opposite poles is therefore the specific signature of anaphase I.

The genes P, Q, R and S occur on the same chromosome. The COV (crossover values) for the pairs of genes are:

P and Q 35% P and R 5% R and Q 40% Q and S 10% R and S 30% Which one of the following sequences of letters represents a correct order of genes on the chromosome?

  • APQRS
  • BRSQP
  • CPRSQ
  • DRPSQ
  • EPQSR
Correct answer: D RPSQ

Full explanation

This is a gene mapping question: crossover values behave like distances along the chromosome, so for genes in the correct order, the crossover value between any two genes should equal the sum of the values between the genes lying between them.

R and P have the smallest value (5%), so they are placed closest together. Adding P-Q (35%) to R-P (5%) gives exactly 40%, matching the given R-Q value – confirming the order R-P-Q so far.

Placing S between P and Q, with P-S = 25% and S-Q = 10%, checks out against every remaining figure: P-S + S-Q = 25 + 10 = 35% (matches P-Q); R-P + P-S = 5 + 25 = 30% (matches R-S); and R-P + P-S + S-Q = 5 + 25 + 10 = 40% (matches R-Q).

Since this single order accounts for all 5 given crossover values, the genes lie in the order R-P-S-Q, matching answer D (RPSQ).

IMAT 2018 question 27 figure
Summary to learn

In gene mapping, a crossover value (COV) between two genes behaves like a distance: for genes lying in their correct linear order along a chromosome, the COV between any two genes equals the sum of the COVs between every pair of genes lying between them. A candidate gene order can therefore be tested directly by checking whether all of the given pairwise crossover values are consistent with simple addition along that order — the order that satisfies every given value simultaneously is the correct map.

Which one of the following statements is correct when the pressure in the ventricles of a healthy human heart is at its highest?

  • AThe semi-lunar valves will be closed.
  • BThe atria of the heart will be filling.
  • CA wave of electrical activity will be reaching the atrioventricular node.
  • DThe heart will be in atrial systole.
  • EThe atrioventricular valves will be open.
Correct answer: B The atria of the heart will be filling.

Full explanation

When the pressure in the ventricles of heart is at its highest, it means that the ventricles are in systole and if the pressure is higher than that in efferent arteries, semi-lunar valves open and bloods flows into aorta and pulmonary arteries . Meanwhile, AV valves are closed and atria are relaxed, accepting blood flow from big veins.

Option A : Incorrect. The semi-lunar valves open at the highest pressure point.

Option B : Correct statement. Atria fills during this period and gets ready for the next cardiac cycle.

Option C : Incorrect. Ventricles contract during the given period and it means that the electrical activity is now at the purkinje fibers, not at the AV node.

Option D : Incorrect. The heart is in the ventricular systole.

Option E : Incorrect. The AV valves are closed.

Summary to learn

The cardiac cycle alternates between systole (contraction) and diastole (relaxation) in a coordinated sequence: ventricular pressure peaks during ventricular systole, at which point it exceeds the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery, forcing the semilunar valves open, while the atrioventricular (AV) valves stay shut to prevent backflow into the atria. Throughout this same period, the atria are relaxed and quietly filling with returning blood from the veins, ready for the next cycle.

Reverse transcriptase is mainly found in retroviruses such as HIV. Four nucleotides are needed for the reaction catalysed by this enzyme.

A group of molecules may inhibit this enzyme. These molecules are structurally similar to the nucleotides but slightly altered so that bonds normally formed in the reaction cannot be made.

Which of the following statements may be correct?

1. The four inhibitor molecules will resemble adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine.

2. The inhibitor molecules can prevent the formation of phosphodiester bonds.

3. The inhibitor molecules can result in a reduction in the number of new virus particles produced.

  • A1 and 3 only
  • B1, 2 and 3
  • C3 only
  • D1 and 2 only
  • E2 and 3 only
Correct answer: B 1, 2 and 3

Full explanation

Question is about the reverse transcriptase enzyme which synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template. So, substrates for this enzyme are 4 different nucleotides which contain adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine as bases.

It is mentioned about an inhibitor of this enzyme which is structurally similar to the nucleotides (competitive inhibition) and thus, binds to the active site, competing with the substrates and hindering DNA synthesis.

3 statements about the inhibitor molecules are given

1. This statement is correct. The competitive inhibitor should be similar to the substrates for the enzyme.

2. Correct statement. The enzyme mainly works by helping in formation of phosphodiester bonds between the nucleotides. So, inhibitors do their job by preventing this bond formation.

3. This is also a correct statement. Reverse transcriptase enzymes not functioning well means that the viral genome will not be able to incorporate into the host genome and use the host’s cellular machinery to synthesize new viruses.

Thus, the correct statements are 1, 2 and 3.

Summary to learn

A competitive enzyme inhibitor works by structurally resembling the enzyme’s normal substrate closely enough to occupy the active site itself, physically blocking the real substrate from binding and reacting there. For an enzyme like reverse transcriptase, which builds a new DNA strand by forming phosphodiester bonds between incoming nucleotides, a nucleotide-like inhibitor that can’t form that bond halts the reaction — which, in a retrovirus like HIV, prevents its RNA genome from ever being converted into DNA that could integrate into a host cell’s genome.

A section of unmutated double-stranded DNA contains 100 nucleotides and 38% of these nucleotides contain thymine.

Which one of the following correctly identifies the number of hydrogen (H) bonds and phosphodiester bonds present in this section of DNA?

  • A138 H bonds present and 98 phosphodiester bonds present
  • B224 H bonds present and 98 phosphodiester bonds present
  • C112 H bonds present and 99 phosphodiester bonds present
  • D138 H bonds present and 99 phosphodiester bonds present
  • E112 H bonds present and 98 phosphodiester bonds present
Correct answer: E 112 H bonds present and 98 phosphodiester bonds present

Full explanation

Given : double-stranded DNA, contains 100 nucleotides, 38 of these contain thymine.

Due to complementary base pairing in which A pairs with T and G pairs with C, if the dsDNA contains 38 thymines, there would be 38 adenine (total 76). The rest contains guanine and cytosine in equal ratio. So, 12 guanine and 12 cytosine.

Between thymine and adenine, 2 hydrogen bonds are formed. Thus, there would be 76 hydrogen bonds in total (38 x 2).

Between guanine and cytosine, 3 hydrogen bonds are formed. Thus, there would be 36 hydrogen bonds in total (12×3).

Total hydrogen bonds = 76 + 36 = 112

Since it is double-stranded DNA, each strand would contain 50 nucleotides each, with 49 phosphodiester bonds in between, making up a total of 98 phosphodiester bonds.

Summary to learn

In a double-stranded DNA molecule, Chargaff’s rule holds across the molecule as a whole: the total percentage of adenine equals the total percentage of thymine, and the total percentage of guanine equals the total percentage of cytosine, since every base on one strand is paired with its complementary partner on the other. From these counts, hydrogen bonds follow directly (two per A–T pair, three per G–C pair), while phosphodiester bonds are counted separately: they link consecutive nucleotides along a single strand’s own sugar-phosphate backbone, so each strand of length n contains (n − 1) phosphodiester bonds.

A condition caused by the dominant allele of a gene on the X chromosome is passed down through a family. Individual Z inherits the condition.

For this family, which of the following statements must be correct, assuming no spontaneous mutations have occurred?

1. If Z is a boy, then he must have inherited the dominant allele from his father.

2. If Z is a boy, then one of his mother’s parents must have also had the condition.

3. If Z is a girl, then both of her parents must have had the allele.

4. If Z is a boy, and has children, then all of his daughters will have the condition.

  • A2 and 4 only
  • B1 and 3 only
  • C1, 3 and 4 only
  • D1 and 4 only
  • E2 and 3 only
Correct answer: A 2 and 4 only

Full explanation

Sex-linked dominant condition is passed down through a family.

4 statements are given.

1. If Z is a boy (XY), he inherits Y allele from father and X allele from mother. Therefore, he must have inherited the dominant allele from this mother, not his father.

2. If Z is a boy (XY), he inherits Y allele from father and X allele from mother. So, one of the X chromosomes of the mother is defective and she must have inherited this X from one of her parents. Thus, this statement is correct.

3. Z is a girl (XX). Since the condition is caused by a dominant allele, one allele is sufficient to express the condition. So, both of her parents do not need to have the allele.

4. Z is a boy (XY) and he has the condition, so his X allele is a diseased allele. If he has daughters (XX), he has to contribute his defected X gene to his daughters and the daughters will have the condition. Thus, this statement is correct.

Summary to learn

For a gene on the X chromosome, inheritance follows the sex chromosomes themselves: a son always receives his single X chromosome from his mother and his Y chromosome from his father, so any X-linked trait he shows must have come from his mother’s side, regardless of his father’s genotype. A daughter, by contrast, receives one X from each parent, so for a dominant X-linked condition she needs the allele from only one of her two parents to show the trait herself.

Squamous epithelium, ciliated epithelium and cartilage are tissues found in healthy humans.

Which one of the following structures is made up of at least TWO of these tissues?

  • AAlveoli
  • BOviduct
  • CBowman’s capsule
  • DTrachea
  • Ecapillaries
Correct answer: D Trachea

Full explanation

Alveolus is composed of just squamous epithelium and some connective tissue.

Oviduct is composed of ciliated columnar epithelium and some connective tissues.

Bowman’s capsule is composed of squamous epithelium.

Trachea is composed of ciliated columnar epithelium and cartilage.

Capillaries are composed of squamous epithelium.

Thus, the structure that is made up of at least TWO of the given tissues is trachea.

Summary to learn

Different body structures are built from characteristic combinations of tissue types: the trachea, for example, combines ciliated columnar epithelium (which lines its inner surface and sweeps mucus and debris upward) with rings of cartilage (which hold the airway open). Other structures mentioned in this kind of question, such as alveoli or capillaries, are typically built from just a single epithelial tissue type (squamous epithelium) rather than a genuine combination of two or more.

Mutations in the CFTR gene cause cystic fibrosis (CF). The non-mutated allele of the gene can be obtained and then introduced into the lung cells of a person with CF using liposomes as a vector. This treatment gives only short-term relief from the symptoms of CF.

Which of the following statements would be a correct explanation of this treatment?

1. Genes are unstable and break down over time in the cell.

2. Lung cells are constantly being replaced and new cells will have the faulty allele.

3. The non-mutated allele is recessive.

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B1 only
  • C2 only
  • D1 and 3 only
  • E2 and 3 only
Correct answer: C 2 only

Full explanation

This question is about cystic fibrosis treatment by introducing non-mutated alleles to the lung cells. But this treatment gives only short-term relief. 3 reasons are given.

Reason 1 : Genes are the basic units of heredity and it carries the instructions for life. Thus, they are properly contained in the nucleus to resist environmental stresses. So, it is incorrect that genes are unstable and break down over time in the cell.

Reason 2 : This is the correct explanation. The liposomes deliver the non-mutated gene into the existing, already-differentiated lung epithelial cells, but the gene is not incorporated into those cells’ chromosomal DNA and does not reach the underlying stem/progenitor cells that continuously replace the lung lining. As the treated cells naturally die and are replaced, over time, by daughter cells descended from the untreated progenitors, the new cells carry only the original mutated CFTR allele, so the corrective effect fades and the relief is only short-term.

Reason 3 : Since cystic fibrosis is also caused by recessive autosomal allele, dominance/ recessiveness isn’t the limiting factor here. One copy of the functional gene is enough to produce normal protein function. Thus, this does not explain why the treatment is short-lived.

Summary to learn

A gene therapy that delivers a corrected gene without integrating it into a cell’s own chromosomal DNA only corrects the specific cells it reaches at that moment — it does not reach or alter the underlying stem or progenitor cells that continuously regenerate a renewing tissue like the lung lining. As those originally treated cells naturally die off over time and are replaced by daughter cells descended from the untreated progenitors, the new cells carry only the original faulty allele again, so the corrective effect inevitably fades and needs to be repeated.

Which of the following structures make a solution that can raise the pH in the digestive system of a healthy human?

1. gallbladder 2. Pancreas 3. Stomach

  • A2 and 3 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C1 only
  • D2 only
  • E3 only
Correct answer: D 2 only

Full explanation

Gallbladder does not make anything. It stores the bile produced by the liver. So, we can exclude this option.

Pancreas produce bicarbonate ions to raise the pH of the contents in the intestine to create a proper environment for the enzymes to work. Small intestinal and pancreas enzymes work best in an alkaline environment.

Stomach produces gastric juice which contains HCl (pH 2) and pepsin. Therefore, pH is very low in the stomach.

Thus, the structure that makes a solution that can raise the pH is Pancreas.

Summary to learn

Different parts of the digestive system maintain very different pH environments to suit the enzymes working there: the stomach secretes strongly acidic gastric juice (around pH 2) containing HCl and pepsin, while the pancreas secretes bicarbonate ions into the small intestine specifically to neutralise this acidic chyme and raise the pH to the alkaline range that intestinal and pancreatic digestive enzymes need to function. The gallbladder, meanwhile, does not produce any digestive secretion of its own — it only stores and concentrates bile that the liver has already made.

An organism, in bright sunlight, has the following features:

Consists of some cells with organelles which contain grana.

All cells contain molecules of ATP, ADP and NAD.

Some cells release carbon dioxide by diffusion all the time.

Which one of the following statements about the organism is correct?

  • AIt is made up of cells which all contain mitochondria and chloroplasts.
  • BIt is photosynthetic but has some cells which only respire.
  • CIt is an anaerobic organism which only releases carbon dioxide.
  • DIt is eukaryotic and all cells carry out photosynthesis.
  • EIt is prokaryotic and only carries out respiration.
Correct answer: B It is photosynthetic but has some cells which only respire.

Full explanation

An organism, in bright sunlight, has the following features:

– Consists of some cells with organelles which contain grana. (this organelle is chloroplast)

– All cells contain molecules of ATP, ADP and NAD.

– Some cells release carbon dioxide by diffusion all the time.

Since it contains chloroplasts (a membrane-bound organelle), the cell must be eukaryotic, and it carries out photosynthesis.

Analysis of the options Option A : Incorrect. The given facts state that some contain chloroplasts and that some cells release carbon dioxide by diffusion all the time (cellular respiration process : mitochondria). Since it specifies “some”, not all cells contain both chloroplast and mitochondria.

Option B : Correct. Because some (not all) of the organism’s cells contain grana (chloroplasts), those cells can carry out photosynthesis, so the organism as a whole is photosynthetic. But every cell contains ATP, ADP and NAD, the molecules needed for respiration, and some cells are releasing carbon dioxide continuously (a respiration product) – so all cells are respiring, including the ones that lack chloroplasts and therefore have no way to capture light energy for photosynthesis. Those chloroplast-free cells can only respire, exactly as option B states.

Option C : Incorrect. This option is contradicted by the fact that some cells release carbon dioxide by diffusion all the time due to cellular respiration, which uses oxygen.

Option D : Incorrect. Not all cells contain chloroplasts; therefore, not all plant cells carry out photosynthesis.

Option E : Incorrect. The cell contains membrane-bound organelles, which is a characteristic of a eukaryotic cell, not a prokaryote.

Summary to learn

In any organism, only cells containing chloroplasts (recognisable by their grana) are able to photosynthesise, but every living cell — with or without chloroplasts — needs to respire continuously to produce usable energy, which is why molecules like ATP, ADP and NAD are found throughout all of an organism’s cells rather than only in the photosynthesising ones. A cell lacking chloroplasts simply has no means of capturing light energy, so it can only ever respire, never photosynthesise, even while other cells in the very same organism are doing both.

Which of the following contain peptide bonds?

1. ribosomes in human liver cells 2. antibodies in human plasma 3. cilia on human bronchial cells 4. cholesterol in the membrane of human kidney cells

  • A2, 3 and 4 only
  • B1 and 3 only
  • C1 and 4 only
  • D2 and 4 only
  • E1, 2 and 3 only
Correct answer: E 1, 2 and 3 only

Full explanation

1. Ribosomes are composed of rRNA and protein subunits. Thus, ribosomes contain peptide bonds.

2. Antibodies are proteins, so they also contain peptide bonds.

3. Cilia are composed of microtubules, which are made of the protein tubulin. Therefore, they also contain peptide bonds.

4. Cholesterol is a lipid, not a protein, so it does not contain peptide bonds.

Ribosomes, antibodies, and cilia contain peptide bonds.

Summary to learn

Whether a structure contains peptide bonds depends on whether it is built from protein: ribosomes (made of rRNA plus protein subunits), antibodies (proteins themselves), and cilia (built from the protein tubulin) all contain peptide bonds, since a peptide bond specifically links amino acids together in a polypeptide chain. Cholesterol, by contrast, is a lipid built from fused carbon rings rather than amino acids, so despite being an important membrane and hormone-precursor molecule, it contains no peptide bonds at all.

B lymphocytes are involved in the human immune response to a bacterial infection.

Which of the following processes would TYPICALLY be carried out by these lymphocytes in response to the infection?

1. cell division by mitosis 2. transcription producing mRNA 3. engulfing and digesting bacteria

  • A1 and 2 only
  • B3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1 only
  • E2 and 3 only
Correct answer: A 1 and 2 only

Full explanation

B lymphocytes are involved in the adaptive immune response, primarily by producing antibodies that target and neutralize pathogens. They also acts as antigen-presenting cells to activate T cells.

When B lymphocytes are activated, they clone themselves through mitosis and produce antibodies via translation and transcription.

However, they do not engulf or digest bacteria — this function is carried out by phagocytes such as macrophages and neutrophils, not B lymphocytes.

Summary to learn

B lymphocytes drive the humoral (antibody-based) arm of adaptive immunity: once activated, they proliferate by mitosis and ramp up transcription and translation to mass-produce and secrete antibodies targeted against the invading pathogen. Physically engulfing and digesting bacteria (phagocytosis), by contrast, is a job carried out by a different class of immune cell — phagocytes such as macrophages and neutrophils — not by B lymphocytes themselves.

A Petri dish contains populations of two different species of bacteria (V and W). Both are growing and reproducing at the same rate, using the same resources. The conditions are then changed and the rate of growth and reproduction of the population of species V increases.

Which of the following, acting independently, could cause this increase in growth and reproduction rate?

1. a decrease in temperature 2. a change in pH 3. the addition of an antibiotic

  • A1, 2 and 3
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C2 only
  • D1 and 2 only
  • E1 and 3 only
Correct answer: A 1, 2 and 3

Full explanation

V and W start out growing at the same rate in the same dish, using the same resources, so neither has an advantage before the change. For the change in conditions to raise only V’s growth rate, it must give V an edge over W – either by suiting V’s biology better than W’s, or by holding W back so it competes less for the shared resources.

1. A decrease in temperature. Growth rate depends on how fast a bacterium’s enzymes (for DNA replication, protein synthesis, respiration, etc.) catalyse their reactions, and every enzyme has an optimal temperature set by its active-site structure. Different species commonly have different optimal growth temperatures. If V’s optimum is lower than W’s, cooling the dish moves conditions closer to V’s optimum (speeding up its enzymes) while moving further from W’s – so V’s growth rate can rise even though both species feel the same temperature change.

2. A change in pH. Enzyme activity is just as pH-sensitive as it is temperature-sensitive, because pH affects the ionisation of amino acid side chains in the active site, and species again differ in their pH optimum. If the new pH sits closer to the optimum for V’s enzymes than for W’s, the same reasoning applies: V’s metabolism speeds up relative to W’s.

3. The addition of an antibiotic. This works by a different route: differential susceptibility rather than differing optima. Antibiotics act on specific bacterial targets (e.g. cell-wall synthesis, ribosomal protein synthesis), and species vary in whether they are affected – V could be naturally resistant (lacking the target, or possessing an inactivating enzyme or efflux pump) while W is not. If the antibiotic inhibits or kills W but leaves V unharmed, W stops competing for the resources the two species share, so more become available to V, increasing its growth and reproduction rate.

Each of the three changes therefore has its own plausible, independent mechanism for favouring V over W, so 1, 2 and 3 could all cause the observed increase – answer (A).

Summary to learn

A change in growth conditions can favour one bacterial species over an otherwise-identical competitor through two quite different mechanisms. Temperature and pH act on enzyme activity: every enzyme has its own optimal temperature and pH set by its active site’s structure, so a shift that happens to move conditions closer to one species’ optimum (and further from the other’s) speeds up its metabolism relative to its competitor. An antibiotic acts by an entirely different route, differential susceptibility: if it harms or kills a susceptible competitor while leaving a resistant species unaffected, the resistant species simply faces less competition for the same shared resources.

Part of a polypeptide sequence consists of four amino acids -1-2-3-4-.

The tRNA anticodons for each amino acid are:

IMAT 2018 question 39 figure
Which one of the following is the correct sequence, in a 3′ to 5′ direction, for the bases on the template strand of the DNA?

  • AGCAACATTGGGT
  • BCGTTGTAAGCCA
  • CCGUUGUAAGCCA
  • DGCAACAUUCCCU
  • EATGGTGCCTTTC
Correct answer: A GCAACATTGGGT

Full explanation

Base pairing is complementary and antiparallel at every step of gene expression: a tRNA anticodon pairs with its mRNA codon by flipping direction and swapping each base for its complement (A↔U, G↔C), and that mRNA codon is in turn transcribed from the DNA template strand by that very same flip-and-complement rule. Applying flip-and-complement twice in a row cancels the two direction-flips, leaving only a straight base swap — so the template strand, read in the same left-to-right order as the anticodon table, is simply the anticodon sequence with every U rewritten as T (since DNA uses thymine, not uracil).

Anticodon 1 = GCA → template = GCA (no U present, so no change). Anticodon 2 = ACA → template = ACA. Anticodon 3 = UUG → template = TTG. Anticodon 4 = GGU → template = GGT.

Reading the four triplets in order for amino acids 1-2-3-4 gives the template strand GCA-ACA-TTG-GGT, i.e. GCAACATTGGGT.

As a check, working out the intermediate mRNA codons the same way (each anticodon reverse-complemented) gives UGC, UGU, CAA and ACC for amino acids 1-4, coding for a sensible Cys-Cys-Gln-Thr tetrapeptide — confirming the shortcut above.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

Summary to learn

Base pairing is complementary and antiparallel at every step from DNA to protein: a tRNA anticodon pairs with its mRNA codon, and that mRNA is in turn transcribed from the DNA template strand by the very same kind of complementary, antiparallel pairing. Because reversing direction and swapping to the complementary base both happen twice in a row — once from anticodon to codon, once from codon to template — the two direction-reversals cancel out, leaving the DNA template strand, read in the same order as the anticodon table, equal to the anticodon sequence itself with every uracil simply rewritten as thymine.

Which of the following statements about a neuron in a healthy human is/are correct?

1. Transport across its cell membrane can occur by exocytosis.

2. It contains the gene that codes for insulin.

3. It contains circular DNA.

  • A1, 2 and 3
  • B1 and 3 only
  • C1 and 2 only
  • D2 and 3 only
  • E1 only
Correct answer: A 1,2 and 3

Full explanation

The question is about a neuron in a healthy human.

Statement 1 : Correct. For example; acetylcholine is released at the nerve terminal via the process of exocytosis.

Statement 2 : Correct. Every cell in the body contains the same genetic content and the same chromosomes. Differences in the type of cell arise due to differences in gene expression, not DNA content.

Statement 3 : Correct. Neurons contain mitochondria and circular DNA can be found within the mitochondria.

Summary to learn

Every diploid cell in the body, including a neuron, carries the organism’s complete genome — the same full set of genes, including ones (like insulin) that are never actually switched on in that particular cell type, since cell specialisation comes from differential gene expression, not from cells discarding unused DNA. Neurons also release neurotransmitters by exocytosis at synapses, and like virtually all eukaryotic cells they contain mitochondria, whose own genome is a small circular piece of DNA distinct from the cell’s much larger linear nuclear DNA.

Chemistry

General, inorganic, organic & biochemistry · 12 questions
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Compounds of chlorine include:

Cl₂O KCl KClO KClO₃ KClO₄ Cl₂O₇ Which one of the following options correctly lists the oxidation states of chlorine that are shown in these compounds?

  • A-1, +1, +5 and +7 only
  • B-1, 0 and +1 only
  • C-1 only
  • D-1, 0, +1, +5 and +7 only
  • E-1, +1, +3, +5 and +7 only
Correct answer: A -1, +1, +5 and +7 only

Full explanation

Each compound here is neutral overall, so the oxidation numbers of all the atoms in it must add up to zero. Oxygen is taken as -2 and potassium as +1 in all of these (their usual values), which leaves chlorine as the only unknown to solve for in each one:

Cl₂O: 2(Cl) + (-2) = 0 ⇒ 2(Cl) = 2 ⇒ Cl = +1.

KCl: (+1) + Cl = 0 ⇒ Cl = -1.

KClO: (+1) + Cl + (-2) = 0 ⇒ Cl = +1.

KClO₃: (+1) + Cl + 3(-2) = 0 ⇒ Cl + 1 – 6 = 0 ⇒ Cl = +5.

KClO₄: (+1) + Cl + 4(-2) = 0 ⇒ Cl + 1 – 8 = 0 ⇒ Cl = +7.

Cl₂O₇: 2(Cl) + 7(-2) = 0 ⇒ 2(Cl) = 14 ⇒ Cl = +7.

Collecting the results: Cl₂O gives +1, KCl gives -1, KClO gives +1 again, KClO₃ gives +5, and both KClO₄ and Cl₂O₇ give +7. The distinct oxidation states shown across these six compounds are therefore -1, +1, +5 and +7 – matching option (A).

Summary to learn

The oxidation number of every atom in a neutral compound must sum to zero, so an unknown element’s oxidation state can be found algebraically once the other elements’ conventional values are fixed — oxygen is almost always −2, and an alkali metal like potassium is always +1. Applying this same balancing equation compound by compound, changing only the number of oxygens or the overall formula each time, is a reliable, mistake-resistant way to work through a whole family of related compounds like chlorine’s various oxides and oxoacids.

Which one of the following substances has the highest solubility in the specified liquid at a temperature of 298 K and 1 atm pressure?

  • Asodium chloride in liquid cyclohexane
  • Bbromine in liquid hexane
  • Chydrogen in liquid water
  • Dpotassium bromide in liquid tetrachloromethane
  • Esilicon dioxide in liquid water
Correct answer: B bromine in liquid hexane

Full explanation

This is a solubility question, and the key idea is that ” like dissolves like”. Polar compounds will dissolve only in polar solvents and nonpolar compounds in non-polar solvents.

Option A : NaCl is a polar ionic compound, while cyclohexane is a non-polar solvent. Thus, NaCl would not dissolve in cyclohexane.

Option B : Bromine is a nonpolar molecule, and hexane is also a non-polar solvent. Since they have the same nature, they dissolve in each other.

Option C : Hydrogen is a nonpolar molecule, while water is a polar solvent. Therefore, hydrogen does not dissolve well in water.

Option D : Potassium bromide is a polar ionic compound, while tetrachloromethane is a non-polar solvent. Compounds with different polarities do not dissolve in each other.

Option E : Silicon dioxide is a non-polar compound and water is a polar solvent. Compounds with different polarities do not dissolve in each other.

Thus, among the given options, option B has the highest solubility.

Summary to learn

Solubility is governed by the principle “like dissolves like”: polar or ionic substances dissolve readily in polar solvents (such as water), because the solvent’s own polar molecules can surround and stabilise the solute’s charges or dipoles, while non-polar substances dissolve readily only in non-polar solvents, whose molecules interact with the solute through similarly weak dispersion forces. Pairing a polar solute with a non-polar solvent, or vice versa, gives poor solubility, since neither substance’s intermolecular forces are well matched to the other’s.

What is the molecular formula of the compound shown below?

IMAT 2018 question 43 figure
  • AC₆H₁₀
  • BC₆H₁₂
  • CC₆H₈
  • DC₆H₆
  • EC₆H₁₄
Correct answer: A C₆H₁₀

Full explanation

The given ring hydrocarbon has 6 angles which mean it is composed of 6 carbons. A double bond is noted in the structure, which means it is an alkene.

Molecular formula for alkene can be calculated with formula CnH2n Since this is a ring structure, we have to eliminate 2 more Hydrogen, so, the equation becomes CnH2n – 2 So, the molecular formula of the compound is C6H2×6 – 2 = C6H10

Summary to learn

A saturated open-chain hydrocarbon (an alkane) follows the general formula CnH2n+2, and each degree of “unsaturation” — one ring, or one C=C double bond — removes exactly two hydrogen atoms from that formula. A cyclic hydrocarbon with one ring and no double bonds (a cycloalkane) is therefore CnH2n, and a ring that also contains one double bond (a cycloalkene) is CnH2n−2, reflecting both structural features at once.

Which of the following species have the same number and arrangement of electrons in their lowest energy states?

¹⁹K⁺ ¹¹Na⁺ ⁸O⁻ ⁸O²⁻ ¹⁶S⁻

  • A⁸O⁻ and ⁸O²⁻
  • B¹⁹K⁺ and ¹⁶S⁻
  • C¹¹Na⁺ and ⁸O²⁻
  • D¹⁹K⁺ and ¹¹Na⁺
  • E⁸O⁻ and ¹⁶S⁻
Correct answer: C ¹¹Na⁺ and ⁸O²⁻

Full explanation

¹⁹K⁺ has 18 electrons (19-1)

¹¹Na⁺ has 10 electrons (11-1)

⁸O⁻ has 9 electrons (8+1)

⁸O²⁻ has 10 electrons (8+2)

¹⁶S⁻ has 17 electrons (16+1)

Thus, ¹¹Na⁺ and ⁸O²⁻ has the same number and arrangement of electrons.

Summary to learn

The number of electrons in an ion is found by starting from its parent atom’s atomic number (which fixes the proton count and never changes when ions form) and then subtracting electrons for a positive charge or adding electrons for a negative charge. Two species are isoelectronic when this final electron count — and therefore their electron arrangement — comes out the same, even though they started from atoms with different atomic numbers, as commonly happens for ions sitting near a noble gas configuration.

Five atoms are shown below. The letters are NOT chemical symbols.

Which one of the following atoms has the highest first ionisation energy?

  • A
    IMAT 2018 question 45 answer option A
  • B
    IMAT 2018 question 45 answer option B
  • C
    IMAT 2018 question 45 answer option C
  • D
    IMAT 2018 question 45 answer option D
  • E
    IMAT 2018 question 45 answer option E
Correct answer: B

Full explanation

Ionization energy is the minimum energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous atom.

Trend of ionization energy :

– Increases across the period from left to right

– Decreases down the group

– It is more difficult to remove an electron from a full octet electron shell or nearly filled electron shell. (higher ionization energy)

The given choices contain elements from group 1 (Z = 11) , group 18 (Z = 10) and group 17 (Z = 9)

Group 1 elements are alkali metals and they tend to have lower ionization energy than others.

Group 18 elements are noble gases and they possess octet electron shells and thus, they are very stable gases and usually have the highest ionization energies.

Group 17 elements are halogens. They are non-metals and they usually have a high ionization energy but lower than that of noble gases.

Thus, the atom with the highest ionization energy is the noble gas : option B

Summary to learn

First ionisation energy — the energy needed to remove one electron from a gaseous atom — increases across a period from left to right (as increasing nuclear charge pulls the outer electrons in more tightly) and decreases down a group (as outer electrons sit progressively further from the nucleus, in shells that are also better shielded). Elements with a full outer shell, the noble gases, have the highest ionisation energies of all, since removing an electron from such a stable, complete configuration takes the most energy.

What is the correct IUPAC name of this compound?

IMAT 2018 question 46 figure
  • A3,3-dichloro-2,4-dimethylhexan-2-ol
  • B3,3-chloro-2-ethyl-4-methylpentan-4-ol
  • C3,3-dichloro-4-ethyl-2-methylpentan-2-ol
  • D3,3-chloro-4-ethyl-2-methylpentan-2-ol
  • E4,4-dichloro-3,5-dimethylhexan-5-ol
Correct answer: A 3,3-dichloro-2,4-dimethylhexan-2-ol

Full explanation

IUPAC rules

1. Identify the longest straight chain of carbon atoms (6 carbon chain: write as stem)

2. Identify the functional group (there is hydroxyl group at position 2 : write as suffix)

3. Identify the side chains or substituent groups (2 chlorine substituents at position 3 and one methyl at position 2 and one methyl at position 4 : write as prefix)

So, the correct IUPAC name would be 3,3-dichloro-2,4-dimethylhexan-2-ol

Summary to learn

IUPAC naming of an organic compound follows a fixed sequence: identify the longest continuous carbon chain that includes the principal functional group (this becomes the name’s stem), identify that functional group itself (expressed as the name’s suffix, with a locant number showing its position), and finally identify every other substituent branching off the chain (expressed as prefixes, each with its own locant, listed alphabetically and combined with a multiplying prefix like “di-” when a substituent appears more than once).

Which row correctly shows the shape of each molecule and whether the molecule is polar (i.e. has a permanent dipole moment) or non-polar?

[Atomic numbers: H = 1; B = 5; C = 6; N = 7; O = 8; F = 9; P = 15; Cl = 17]

IMAT 2018 question 47 figure
  • Arow 3
  • Brow 1
  • Crow 4
  • Drow 2
  • Erow 5
Correct answer: E row 5

Full explanation

BF₃ has 3 electron domains and has trigonal planar shape. Shape is symmetrical and thus, there is no net dipole moment (non-polar).

In CH₂Cl₂ , the central C atom has 4 electron domains (tetrahedral shape) and since there is a significant electronegativity difference between C and Cl atoms, and the shape is not symmetrical, there is a net dipole moment (polar).

CO₂ has linear geometry and it is symmetrical. Thus, it is a non-polar molecule even though there is significant electronegativity difference between C and O atoms because the net dipoles cancel out due to symmetrical shape.

In NH₃ , the central nitrogen atom has 4 electron domains in which one domain is occupied by the lone pair. The shape is trigonal pyramidal which is not symmetrical and there is a net dipole moment (polar).

PCl₅ has 5 electron domains and the shape of the molecule is trigonal bipyramidal which is symmetrical. There is no net dipole moment for this molecule (non-polar).

Checking every row of the table against this reasoning: row 1 wrongly calls BF₃ “polar” (it’s actually non-polar), row 2 wrongly calls CH₂Cl₂ “non-polar” (it’s actually polar), row 3 wrongly calls CO₂ “polar” (it’s actually non-polar), and row 4 gives NH₃ the wrong shape (“trigonal planar” instead of trigonal pyramidal). Only row 5 (PCl₅, trigonal bipyramidal, non-polar) has both the shape and the polarity correct.

Hence, the correct answer is (E), row 5.

Summary to learn

A molecule’s overall polarity depends on both its individual bond dipoles AND its molecular geometry, not on bond polarity alone: even a molecule with strongly polar individual bonds can have zero net dipole moment if its shape is symmetric enough for those bond dipoles to cancel out exactly (as in linear CO₂, trigonal planar BF₃, or trigonal bipyramidal PCl₅). An asymmetric shape — caused either by different substituents around the central atom, or by a lone pair occupying one position where a bond would otherwise be — leaves the bond dipoles unbalanced, giving the molecule an overall polar character instead.

Consider a fixed volume and amount of an ideal gas at 10 °C.

What temperature would it have to be changed to in order for the pressure to be doubled?

  • A5°C
  • B20 °C
  • C566 °C
  • D293 °C
  • E278 °C
Correct answer: D 293 °C

Full explanation

Given :

T1 = 10’C + 273 = 283K, P1 = P

T2 = ?, P2 = 2P

(T1)/(P1) = (T2)/(P2)

T2 = (T1 × P2)/(P1) = (283K × 2P)/(P) = 566K = 566K – 273 = 293’C

Summary to learn

Gay-Lussac’s law states that for a fixed amount of gas held at constant volume, pressure and absolute temperature (in kelvin) are directly proportional: P/T stays constant, so P₁/T₁ = P₂/T₂. Doubling the pressure under these constant-volume conditions therefore requires doubling the absolute temperature as well — and since temperatures in this kind of calculation must be converted to kelvin first, the final answer needs converting back to Celsius at the end if that’s what’s being asked for.

Consider this ionic equation in aqueous solution:

CH₃O⁻ + H₂O → CH₃OH + OH⁻ Which statement about this reaction is correct?

  • AWater is acting as a Brønsted–Lowry base.
  • BThe CH₃O⁻ ion is a Lewis acid.
  • CThe final mixture of solutions would have a pH below 7.
  • DCH₃OH is the conjugate acid of CH₃O⁻ .
  • EThe hydroxide ion is the conjugate acid of the water.
Correct answer: D CH₃OH is the conjugate acid of CH₃O⁻ .

Full explanation

CH₃O⁻ + H₂O → CH₃OH + OH⁻

In this reaction, there is proton transfer. So, we can identify Brønsted–Lowry acids (proton donor) and bases (proton acceptor).

CH₃O⁻ is Brønsted–Lowry base (also Lewis base) and H₂O is Brønsted–Lowry acid.

CH₃OH is the conjugate acids of CH₃O⁻.

OH⁻ is the conjugate base of H₂O.

Final pH of the solution : water is a weak acid and thus, its conjugate base is strong. CH₃O⁻ (methoxide ion) is a strong base and thus, its conjugate acid is weak. Strong base (OH⁻) and weak acid (CH₃OH) combination would result in strongly basic solution with pH significantly above 7.

Thus, the correct option among given statements is option D.

Summary to learn

In a Brønsted–Lowry acid-base reaction, the species donating a proton is the acid and the one accepting it is the base; each acid-base pair that differs by exactly one proton (like CH₃OH and CH₃O⁻, or H₂O and OH⁻) is called a conjugate pair. A key rule links their relative strengths: the stronger an acid or base is, the weaker its conjugate partner is, so when a strong base’s conjugate acid is paired with a weak acid’s conjugate base in a reaction’s products, the resulting solution tends toward the stronger of the two — here, a strongly basic solution.

A sealed container contains 1.00 mol of hydrogen gas, which behaves as an ideal gas.

Which of the following changes increase(s) the total kinetic energy of the hydrogen gas molecules initially within the container?

1. Changing the amount of hydrogen from 1.0 mol to 1.2 mol whilst keeping the pressure and volume constant.

2. Changing the pressure from 1.0 atm to 1.2 atm whilst keeping the volume and number of moles constant.

3. Changing the volume from 1.0 L to 1.2 L whilst keeping the pressure and number of moles constant.

  • A3 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1, 2 and 3
  • D1 and 2 only
  • E1 only
Correct answer: B 2 and 3 only

Full explanation

Temperature is a measure of kinetic energy. Thus, if a change increases temperature, it also increases the kinetic energy.

Statement 1 : according to the ideal gas law equation; PV = nRT

At constant temperature and pressure, increasing the number of moles would require a decrease in temperature to maintain the equation, thereby decreasing the kinetic energy.

Statement 2 : According to Gay-Lussac’s law, increasing the pressure (at constant volume and number of moles) increases the temperature of the gas and as a result, the kinetic energy increases.

Statement 3 : According to Charles’s law, increasing the volume (at constant pressure and number of moles) increases the temperature of the gas, thereby increasing the kinetic energy of the gas.

Thus, changes in case 2 and 3 increase the total kinetic energy of the hydrogen gas molecules initially within the container.

Summary to learn

The total kinetic energy of an ideal gas’s molecules depends only on its absolute temperature, not directly on its pressure, volume, or amount — so working out whether a described change increases kinetic energy always comes down to working out whether that change increases temperature. Using the ideal gas law PV = nRT, a change that increases pressure or volume while holding the other two of {P, V, n} fixed must correspond to a temperature increase, while a change that increases the amount of gas while holding pressure and volume fixed actually requires temperature to fall to keep the equation balanced.

When nitrogen and hydrogen are mixed under suitable conditions of temperature and pressure, and in the presence of a catalyst, an equilibrium state is attained:

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) ΔH is negative Which of the following statements explain(s) why, when the pressure on a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen is increased while the temperature remains constant, the time taken to attain equilibrium is decreased?

1. The molecules have a higher collision frequency.

2. The yield of ammonia (NH₃(g)) decreases.

3. A greater proportion of molecules in the mixture have energy greater than the activation energy.

  • A2 only
  • B3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
  • E1 only
Correct answer: E 1 only

Full explanation

An equilibrium equation is given.

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) ΔH is negative

For particles to react, they have to collide together with sufficient energy (Activation energy)

Successful collisions depend on two things Amount of energy the particles have Frequency of collisions

– Temperature effect – move faster and collide more easily

– Concentration/ pressure effect – more frequent collision

– Surface area – more frequent collision

– Catalyst – reduce activation energy

When the pressure on a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen is increased while the temperature remains constant, more successful collisions (higher collision frequency) leads to less time taken to reach equilibrium.

Another effect is that since the reaction involves change in the number of gas molecules, increasing the pressure causes the equilibrium shift to the side with the fewer molecules (to the product side in this case) and thus, increases the yield of ammonia.

Moreover, the energy of the molecules depends on temperature, not pressure. SInce temperature remains constant, the energy distribution of molecules doesn’t change.

Thus, the correct statement is 1.

Summary to learn

A change in reaction conditions can affect a reaction at equilibrium in two genuinely separate ways, which are easy to conflate: it can change how FAST equilibrium is reached (a kinetics effect, governed by collision frequency and the energy particles carry into each collision) and, independently, it can shift WHERE the equilibrium position ends up (a le Chatelier effect, governed by concentration, pressure and temperature changes relative to the reaction’s own stoichiometry). Increasing pressure on a gas-phase reaction speeds up the approach to equilibrium by raising collision frequency, and separately, since this particular reaction has fewer moles of gas on the product side, it also happens to shift the equilibrium position toward more product — but only the collision-frequency effect answers a question specifically about time taken, not about yield.

Which of the following statements, if any, are correct for the properties of Group I elements?

1. They form hydrides where the hydrogen has an oxidation state of -1.

2. They can reduce iodine to iodide.

3. Their outer electrons are delocalised when in the liquid state.

  • A1, 2 and 3
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • Dnone of them
  • E2 and 3 only
Correct answer: A 1, 2 and 3

Full explanation

Properties of the group I elements (alkali metals)

Analysis of the given statements

Statement 1 : Correct.

For example; in NaH (sodium hydride), the sodium ion has an oxidation number of +1, while the hydrogen ion has an oxidation number of -1.

Statement 2 : Correct.

If we consider a reaction where Sodium reacts with iodine, the equation would be:

Na + I₂ → 2NaI Initially, iodine in I₂ has an oxidation number of 0, and in the product (iodide ion), its oxidation number becomes -1. Thus, it is true that Group I elements act as reducing agents, since they cause reduction of other elements by donating electrons.

Statement 3 : Correct. Alkali metals are conductive in both solid and liquid states due to the mobility of their outer electrons, a characteristic of metallic bonding. Therefore, it is correct to say that their outer electrons are delocalised in the liquid state.

Summary to learn

Group 1 elements (the alkali metals) share a consistent set of chemical properties: they form ionic hydrides in which hydrogen, unusually, carries an oxidation state of −1 rather than its more common +1; they readily lose their single outer electron, making them strong reducing agents capable of reducing other elements (such as converting iodine, oxidation state 0, into iodide, oxidation state −1); and their metallic bonding, based on a “sea” of delocalised outer electrons, persists even when they melt into the liquid state, which is why liquid alkali metals still conduct electricity.

Physics & Mathematics

Mechanics, electricity, thermodynamics, algebra & geometry · 8 questions
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The equation below has two roots.
(x + 4)/(x + 1) = x
What is the sum of the two roots?

  • A2
  • B−2
  • C4
  • D−4
  • E0
Correct answer: E 0

Full explanation

First, simplify the given equation: (x + 4)/(x + 1) = x ⇒ x + 4 = x(x + 1) ⇒ x + 4 = x² + x ⇒ x² − 4 = 0.

Solve the quadratic equation: x² − 4 = x² − 2² = 0 ⇒ (x − 2)(x + 2) = 0 ⇒ x = ±2.

So, the sum of the roots = 2 + (−2) = 2 − 2 = 0.

Alternatively, using Vieta’s formula for a quadratic ax² + bx + c = 0: sum of roots = −b/a. For x² − 4 = 0, sum of roots = −0/1 = 0.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Summary to learn

For any quadratic equation written in the standard form ax² + bx + c = 0, Vieta’s formulas give the sum and product of its two roots directly from the coefficients, without needing to solve for the roots individually first: the sum of the roots equals −b/a, and their product equals c/a. This is often the fastest way to answer a question about the roots’ sum or product once an equation has been rearranged into that standard form.

A pentagon has one line of symmetry. All five sides are 6 cm, and the interior angles, in anticlockwise order, are 60°, 150°, 90°, 90° and 150°.
What is the area of this pentagon?

  • A3(5 + √3) cm²
  • B9(2 + √3) cm²
  • C3(4 + √3) cm²
  • D3(12 + √3) cm²
  • E9(4 + √3) cm²
Correct answer: E 9(4 + √3) cm²

Full explanation

The pentagon is symmetric about its line of symmetry. Splitting it along that line where the 150° angles meet the top vertex shows it is a square (with the four 90° corners and the two split 90° portions of the 150° angles) topped by an equilateral triangle (the two split 60° portions of the top angle, with all sides 6 cm).

Area of the square = 6 cm × 6 cm = 36 cm².

The triangle is equilateral with side 6 cm. Using Heron’s formula: semi-perimeter s = (6 + 6 + 6)/2 = 9.

Area = √[s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)] = √[9(9−6)(9−6)(9−6)] = √(9 × 3 × 3 × 3) = 9√3 cm².

So, area of the pentagon = 36 cm² + 9√3 cm² = 9(4 + √3) cm².

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Summary to learn

A composite shape that is symmetric about one line can often be split, along that line, into simpler standard shapes (such as a square or rectangle plus a triangle) whose individual areas are easy to calculate and then add together. When a triangle’s three side lengths are known but its height is not, Heron’s formula — area = √[s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)], where s is the semi-perimeter — gives its area directly from those side lengths alone.

An electric train is travelling on a straight, horizontal track. A constant resultant force (greater than zero) acts on the train in the direction of the train’s motion.
What happens to the magnitude of the acceleration and to the magnitude of the velocity of the train while this force is acting?

  • AThe acceleration increases and the velocity remains constant.
  • BThe acceleration remains constant and the velocity increases.
  • CThe acceleration decreases and the velocity increases.
  • DThe acceleration remains constant and the velocity remains constant.
  • EThe acceleration increases and the velocity increases.
Correct answer: B The acceleration remains constant and the velocity increases.

Full explanation

By Newton’s second law, Force (F) = mass (m) × acceleration (a). Since the force is constant and the mass is constant, the acceleration is also constant.

From the equation of motion v = u + at, if acceleration is constant, velocity increases steadily over time (as long as the constant force keeps acting in the direction of motion).

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

Summary to learn

Newton’s second law, F = ma, shows that a constant net force acting on an object of constant mass produces a constant acceleration — the acceleration does not increase or decrease while that force keeps acting unchanged. From there, the equation of motion v = u + at shows that a constant acceleration causes velocity to increase steadily (at a constant rate) for as long as the force continues to act in the direction of motion.

Which one of the following is an equation of the line that passes through (4, 3) and is perpendicular to the line y = 2x + 4?

  • A2x − y = 5
  • B2y + x = 11
  • C2y − x = 2
  • D2x + y = 11
  • E2y + x = 10
Correct answer: E 2y + x = 10

Full explanation

The line y = 2x + 4 has slope m = 2. A line perpendicular to it has slope equal to the negative reciprocal: m⊥ = −1/2.

The perpendicular line passes through (4, 3) with slope −1/2. Using the point-slope form y − y₁ = m(x − x₁): y − 3 = −½(x − 4).

Multiplying through by 2: 2y − 6 = −x + 4 ⇒ 2y + x = 10.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Summary to learn

Two lines are perpendicular exactly when their gradients are negative reciprocals of one another (m₁ × m₂ = −1), so a line perpendicular to one with gradient m has gradient −1/m. Once that new gradient and one point the line passes through are both known, the point-slope form y − y₁ = m(x − x₁) gives the line’s full equation directly.

Three spherical particles have the following diameters: 1650 pm, 1.5 nm and 0.0036 μm.
What is their order of diameter (smallest first)?

  • A0.0036 μm, 1.5 nm, 1650 pm
  • B1.5 nm, 0.0036 μm, 1650 pm
  • C1650 pm, 1.5 nm, 0.0036 μm
  • D0.0036 μm, 1650 pm, 1.5 nm
  • E1.5 nm, 1650 pm, 0.0036 μm
Correct answer: E 1.5 nm, 1650 pm, 0.0036 μm

Full explanation

Convert all three diameters to a common unit (metres):

1650 pm = 1650 × 10−12 m = 1.65 × 10−9 m.

1.5 nm = 1.5 × 10−9 m.

0.0036 μm = 0.0036 × 10−6 m = 3.6 × 10−9 m.

Ordering from smallest to largest: 1.5 nm (1.5 × 10−9 m) < 1650 pm (1.65 × 10−9 m) < 0.0036 μm (3.6 × 10−9 m).

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Summary to learn

Comparing measurements given in different metric prefixes (pico-, nano-, micro-, and so on) requires converting every value into the same base unit first, since each prefix represents a different power of ten and values can’t be validly compared while still expressed in different units. Once everything is expressed in, say, metres, ordering the values from smallest to largest becomes a straightforward numerical comparison.

A wire made of a metal of uniform resistivity 1.0 × 10−6 Ωm is 2.0 m long and has a diameter of 2.0 × 10−3 m.
What is the electrical resistance of this length of the wire?

  • A(2.0 × 10−3)/π Ω
  • B5.0 × 10−13π Ω
  • C1.0/(2π) Ω
  • D2.0 × 10−12π Ω
  • E2.0/π Ω
Correct answer: E 2.0/π Ω

Full explanation

The resistance R of a wire is given by R = ρL/A, where ρ is resistivity, L is length and A is cross-sectional area.

Given: ρ = 1.0 × 10−6 Ωm, L = 2.0 m, diameter = 2.0 × 10−3 m so radius = 1.0 × 10−3 m.

As the wire is cylindrical, A = πr² = π(1.0 × 10−3)² = π × 10−6 m².

R = ρL/A = (1.0 × 10−6 Ωm × 2.0 m)/(π × 10−6 m²) = 2.0/π Ω.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

Summary to learn

The electrical resistance of a uniform wire is given by R = ρL/A, where ρ is the material’s resistivity, L is its length, and A is its cross-sectional area — so resistance increases with a longer or thinner wire and decreases with a thicker one. For a cylindrical wire, the cross-sectional area is calculated from its radius (half its diameter) using A = πr², not directly from the diameter itself.

The Earth’s atmosphere contains oxygen and nitrogen. The mass of an oxygen molecule is greater than the mass of a nitrogen molecule. The temperature of air in a room on a particular day is 300 K.
Below are four statements about the motion of the two types of molecule in this room:
1. They have an equal mean square velocity (v̄²).
2. A nitrogen molecule has a greater mean square velocity (v̄²) than an oxygen molecule.
3. A nitrogen molecule has a greater mean kinetic energy than an oxygen molecule.
4. An oxygen molecule has a greater mean kinetic energy than a nitrogen molecule.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

  • Astatement 1 only
  • Bstatement 1 and 3 only
  • Cnone of them
  • Dstatement 2 only
  • Estatement 2 and 4 only
Correct answer: D statement 2 only

Full explanation

Mean kinetic energy per molecule of a gas at temperature T is KE = 3/2 kBT, which depends only on temperature, not on the mass of the molecule. Since both gases are at the same temperature (300 K), oxygen and nitrogen molecules have the same mean kinetic energy — so statements 3 and 4 are false.

Mean square velocity is given by v̄² = 3kBT/m, where m is the molecule’s mass. Since it depends on mass, lighter molecules have a higher mean square velocity — so statement 1 (equal v̄²) is false.

As a nitrogen molecule is lighter than an oxygen molecule, nitrogen has the greater mean square velocity, making statement 2 true.

So, only statement 2 is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Summary to learn

For an ideal gas, the mean kinetic energy per molecule depends only on absolute temperature, not on molecular mass, so two different gases at the same temperature always have the same mean kinetic energy per molecule regardless of how heavy their molecules are. Mean square velocity, by contrast, does depend on mass (v̄² = 3kBT/m) — so at a shared temperature, the lighter of two molecule types always has the higher mean square velocity, even though both have identical mean kinetic energy.

Evaluate:
(3 × 10³)³ × (2 × 10−5)

  • A5.4 × 10−1
  • B5.4 × 10²
  • C5.4 × 10¹
  • D5.4 × 105
  • E5.4 × 104
Correct answer: D 5.4 × 105

Full explanation

Expand the first term: (3 × 10³)³ = 3³ × 10⁹ = 27 × 10⁹.

Multiply by the second term and express in scientific notation: (27 × 109) × (2 × 10−5) = 54 × 10⁴ ⇒ 5.4 × 105.

Hence, the correct answer is (D).

Summary to learn

Multiplying or dividing numbers written in scientific notation (a × 10m) is done in two separate steps: combine the coefficients (the “a” parts) by ordinary multiplication or division, and combine the powers of ten by adding or subtracting their exponents. If the resulting coefficient doesn’t fall between 1 and 10, it needs one final adjustment — shifting a factor of ten between the coefficient and the exponent — before the answer is correctly expressed in scientific notation.

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The IMAT is a single 100-minute test made up of General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics questions. Correct answers score +1.5, unanswered questions score 0, and incorrect answers score −0.4 (the exact weighting has varied slightly by year — always check the official rules for the year you are sitting).

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