IMAT 2017 Worked Solution

Correct answer: D. 96

The tin contains 4 types of chocolates (Red, Blue, Yellow, and Green) in equal numbers of each.

In each passing among 4 individuals, the following quantity is taken;

3R (John), 1R-1G-1Y-1B (Peter), 1Y (Jane), 2G (Tin owner)

In total : 4R-2Y-1B-3G

That amount of chocolate is taken from the tin 6 times.

Therefore, after 6th passing, 24R-12Y-6B-18G of chocolates are taken.

Given: After six passings around the tin, half of the chocolates remaining in the tin are blue.

Suppose the tin contains 24 chocolates of each type (number taken from 24R), then, it is 24R-24G-24Y-24B. Since 24R-12Y-6B-18G are taken after 6 passings, 12Y-18B-6G remains, which is in accordance with the last given fact: half of the remaining are blue.

Thus, we can be sure that the tin contains 24 each type, so, in total, 96 chocolates.

Correct answer: E

Option A is the view we will see from the right side of the frame.

Option B is the view we will see from the top part of the frame.

Option C is the view we will see from the bottom part of the frame.

Option D is the view we will see from the left side of the frame.

Option E is NOT a possible side view of this part of the aluminium window frame.

A document has been prepared to include the images and diagrams related to the questions, placed directly below the worked solutions for clarity and reference.

Correct answer: B. 14 hours

Work time: 8 am - 5:15 pm

Sheelagh lives in London.

There are headquarters in 7 countries :

Jakarta (+8), Nairobi (+3), Prague (+1), Ottawa (-5),

Moscow (+3), Canberra (+10), and Hong Kong (+8)

Sheelagh sent an email at 3 pm.

Email will be read at the following times according to the time zone.

Jakarta – 8 am (12 am - next day - London time)

Nairobi – 8 am (5 am - next day - London time)

Prague – 4 pm (3 pm London time)

Ottawa – 10 am (3 pm London time)

Moscow – 8 am (5 am London time)

Canberra – 8 am (10 pm London time)

Hong Kong – 8 am (12 am - next day - London time)

Thus, the longest possible interval would be 14 hours (headquarters in Nairobi and Moscow)

Correct answer: E. £2.25

We will try to calculate the charge starting from the lowest row.

With 6 or more option + 1 item : 3.30 +55p = £3.85

5 item option + 2 item : 1.60 + 70p = £2.30

4 item option + 3 item : 1.30 + 95p = £2.25

2 item option x 3 + 1 item = 70p x 3 + 55p = £2.60

Thus, the lowest postal charge would be £2.25

Correct answer: A

stand at the doorway,
-A square wardrobe on the right side.
-Bed - also on the right side, and occupies more than half of the length of the room.
-Desk on the left side

We can exclude options B, C, and E as the bed is on the left side.
In option D, the square-shaped desk is on the left side instead of the right. Therefore, we can exclude this option.
Thus, the option that gives the correct view of Alex’s bedroom is option A.

Correct Answer: A) 220

For the given 2 x 2 square grid, 3 rows and 3 columns that each contain 2 matchsticks are required. A total - 12 matchsticks are used.

For a 1x1 square grid, 2 rows and 2 columns that each contain 1 matchstick are required. Total - 4 matchsticks

If we repeat that pattern, for a 10x10 square grid, 11 rows and 11 columns that each containing 10 matchsticks are required. Total - 220 matchsticks (110 +110)

Correct Answer: D. E-cigarettes are just as harmful as traditional cigarettes.

If we take a look at the overall structure of the paragraph given, there is a claim on the first sentences. Then, that claim is challenged with the word “However”. Therefore, we can guess that the conclusion would be that the first claim might have some gaps.
So, at first, E cigarettes are praised. However, it still contains nicotine and research is ongoing. So, E cigarettes might not be a fact to get praise – it is also associated with a range of health conditions. That would be the main structure and conclusion of the paragraph.

Analysis of the options

Option A: Not mentioned at all about that information.

Option B: Implied, possibly, but it's not the conclusion drawn by the passage.

Option C: True, but this is background information, not the conclusion.

Option D: This is the correct conclusion that can be drawn from the passage.

Option E: The passage does not say this — it only says nicotine may be dangerous, but doesn’t compare overall harm.

Correct Answer: A. A ban on palm oil alone would not solve all of the environmental problems associated with vegetable oil production.

The passage acknowledges the environmental damage caused by palm oil. But, it also points out that some environmental groups warn alternative oils could be worse, requiring even more land.
This leads to the main conclusion: even if palm oil is banned, switching to alternatives could still cause serious environmental harm.

Option A: This is the correct conclusion that can be drawn from the passage.

Option B: This is a possible consequence, but it's not stated or concluded in the passage.

Option C: Not mentioned at all. The passage focuses on global awareness, not regional understanding.

Option D: The passage says they often are, but it doesn’t say they must be or that it’s for profit reasons.

Option E: Not mentioned. The focus is on environmental impact, not business incentives.

Correct Answer: A

So, the question asks for the appropriate distance-time graph. Usually, time stays on the X-axis and distance stays on the Y-axis.

Distance-wise, A to B is 16km and B to C is 8km.
He leaves at 11 am.

Time taken from A to B: 1hr (for the first 6km) — 20 mins (rest) — 48 minutes (for the last 6km) [Total - 2 hours and 8 minutes]

Time taken from B to C: 20 mins (rest and chat) — 30mins (6km) [Total - 50 minutes]
Time taken back home: Rest for about 1 hour — 50 minutes to arrive back home from C to A.
So, to differentiate which graph represents David’s route, it would be a good idea to check the resting time.
First, he rests for 20 mins, and then, same time period (20 mins), and lastly, for an hour. So, it would be represented as 2 flat lines with the same intervals first, and then, a third flat line with a period 3 times longer.
From this information, we can exclude C and D.
Then, we can exclude E because on the way back home, David took 50 mins, not 0 mins.

A and B can be differentiated by the speed. When David goes from A to B, he runs at 6 km/hr at first, then at 10 km/hr. So, the slope of the second part should be steeper than the first one, which is correctly described by graph A.

Thus, the correct option is option A.

Correct answer: E.It draws a conclusion based on one example of how a company operates.

The passage begins by saying comparison websites claim to save users time and money. Then, it presents a single negative example of one user who received no useful results and was spammed afterwards. Based on this one case, the passage questions the wisdom of using such sites in general.
This is a classic flaw in reasoning: drawing a broad conclusion based on an isolated example.
Option Analysis

Option A: The passage never says this or even implies it.

Option B: The argument is about the user's experience, not an attack on a company.

Option C: Actually, it questions this claim rather than assumes it.

Option D: No such assumption is made.

Option E: This is the correct answer

Correct Answer: E. Trawling nets have a destructive impact on many endangered species.

The argument defends trawling, claiming it’s not as damaging as environmentalists say, and can even benefit marine life, especially in shallow, sandy areas. To weaken this argument, you need a statement that shows trawling is actually harmful, particularly in a way that contradicts the supposed benefits.

Analysis of the given options

Option A: Strengthens the argument.

Option B: Irrelevant to the ecological impact being debated.

Option C: A concern for fishermen, not marine ecosystems.

Option D: Strengthens the argument, not weakens it.

Option E: This is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A. The new captain’s actions have weakened team morale

The argument says it's right that the captain has been removed so that the team can pull together and have a better chance of winning. For this conclusion to make sense, it depends on the assumption that:

His actions were harming team unity and morale.
Without this assumption, there would be no reason to think that removing him would help the team perform better.

Analysis of the options

Option A: This is the correct answer.

Option B: Irrelevant. The argument is about removing him now, not about his initial appointment.

Option C: Too strong. The argument says it will improve their chances, not guarantee a win.

Option D: Opposite of the argument’s intent — it’s trying to help the team win.

Option E: Irrelevant. The focus is on the captain’s impact on the team, not media ethics.

Correct Answer: E) 15 km/h

Correct Answer: B. Many students of forensic science go on to pursue careers in other areas.

The main argument claims that: Media attention has increased interest in forensic science. This has led to more courses and more students. But not more jobs, so…Students who study forensics will face fierce competition for limited, unpleasant work.
To weaken this argument, we need to challenge the idea that all or most students are aiming for and competing for the same limited forensic science jobs.
Analysis of the options

Option A: Supports the argument – it shows a tough job market.

Option B: If many students go into other careers, then the job competition is not as fierce as claimed. The conclusion that studying forensics leads to a tough job market becomes less convincing. Therefore, this is a correct option.

Option C: Supports the argument – fewer jobs, more competition.

Option D: Supports the argument – more students trained, same number of jobs.

Option E: Irrelevant to the point about job availability and competition.

Correct Answer: E. Josie

1) Harry (85kg): Walks fast for 30 minutes + walks slow for 30 minutes

●Walking fast: 310 calories/hour × 0.5 hours = 155 calories

●Walking slow: 200 calories/hour × 0.5 hours = 100 calories

●Total: 255 calories

2) Holly (60kg): Runs fast for 20 minutes + walks slow for 10 minutes

●Running fast: 510 calories/hour × 0.33 hours = 170 calories

●Walking slow: 150 calories/hour × 0.17 hours = 25 calories

●Total: 195 calories

3) Jessie (75kg): Runs fast for 10 minutes + runs slow for 20 minutes

●Running fast: 540 calories/hour × 0.17 hours = 90 calories

●Running slow: 420 calories/hour × 0.33 hours = 140 calories

●Total: 230 calories

4) Josie (100kg): Walks fast for 30 minutes + walks slow for 30 minutes

●Walking fast: 350 calories/hour × 0.5 hours = 175 calories

●Walking slow: 240 calories/hour × 0.5 hours = 120 calories

●Total: 295 calories

●Paul (60kg): Runs slow for 20 minutes + walks fast for 20 minutes

●Running slow: 360 calories/hour × 0.33 hours = 120 calories

●Walking fast: 210 calories/hour × 0.33 hours = 70 calories

●Total: 190 calories

Josie burns the most calories with 295 calories total.
The answer is E. Josie.

Correct Answer: C. The banks’ additional insurance services protect only against the costs of fraudulent credit card transactions.

The argument concludes that buying additional insurance is unnecessary because: Victims of credit card fraud are reimbursed by the bank anyway. Therefore, customers don’t need to pay extra for protection.
But this conclusion only makes sense if the additional insurance covers only what the bank already protects — namely, the costs of fraudulent credit card transactions.

Analysis of the options
Option A: This contradicts the claim that the services are unnecessary.

Option B: Irrelevant. Availability isn’t the issue — necessity is.

Option C: This is the correct assumption. If the insurance did cover other things (e.g., lost time, legal costs, broader identity theft issues), then the argument would fall apart.

Option D: Too narrow, and not implied by the passage.

Option E: The argument doesn’t minimize the seriousness, just the need for extra insurance.

Correct Answer: D. Profits from sporting events should be spent on encouraging people to participate in sport.

The principle in the original argument is:

Money raised from a specific activity should be spent on things closely related to that activity.

In the passage, this principle is applied to fuel taxes, arguing they should be spent on roads or transport (directly related), rather than unrelated areas like healthcare or defence.

Analysis of the options

Option A: Both options are transport-related, so this is not really an application of the principle — it’s a preference within the same category.

Option B: This is a value judgment, not an application of the principle.

Option C: Again, this is a priority debate, not about matching source and use of funds.

Option D: This mirrors the principle: using money from sports for sports-related purposes.

Option E: This challenges taxation itself, not how tax revenue is used.

Correct Answer: D. The government should help financially with the provision of children’s glasses.

The passage builds the case that:
1. Poor children often lack glasses due to cost.

2. Free glasses lead to better test scores, equivalent to a year of schooling.

3. Better education improves future income and tax contributions.

4. The financial benefit outweighs the cost of the glasses.

Therefore, the logical conclusion is that the government should pay for the glasses — because it's cost-effective and improves educational and economic outcomes.

Analysis of the options

Option A : Irrelevant. The argument is about providing help, not marking adjustments.

Option B : Mentioned briefly, but not the main focus or conclusion.

Option C : The point is that glasses are equivalent to extra schooling, not that we should add schooling.

Option D : This is the main conclusion of the argument — the statement that all the other points are trying to support.

Option E : Not mentioned or implied.

Correct Answer: E. It ignores the fact that if there had been no restrictions, more young people would have suffered from drinking alcohol.

The argument claims:

●Restrictions on alcohol sales to young people were meant to protect health.

●But instead, some started drinking dangerous non-beverage alcohols (like perfumes and medical spirits).

●So the conclusion is: remove the restrictions to reduce health risks.

The flaw here is that it only considers the harm caused by the restriction (i.e., drinking dangerous substitutes), but ignores the potential harm of lifting the restriction — namely, more underage drinking of actual alcohol, which could also cause serious health problems.

Analysis of the options

Option A: The argument doesn’t say restrictions cause underage drinking generally — only that some turn to unsafe alternatives because of the restrictions.

Option B: Education is not part of the argument at all.

Option C: The issue discussed is access (legal restriction), not affordability.

Option D: Irrelevant — the argument is about health risks, not cultural norms.

Option E : This is the best statement of flaw. The argument falsely assumes that removing restrictions will improve health, without weighing the likely negative health consequences of more legal alcohol access.

Correct Answer: C. 19:47

Correct Answer: E. Adam Smith

David Ricardo: Famous for the theory of comparative advantage, which supports international trade.

Thomas Robert Malthus: Known for the Malthusian theory of population, which argued that population growth would outstrip food supply, leading to famine and poverty.

Karl Marx: Critic of capitalism; developed Marxist theory, focusing on class struggle and advocating for socialism.

Vilfredo Pareto: Introduced the concept of Pareto efficiency in economics and the Pareto Principle

Adam Smith: In “The Wealth of Nations” (1776), he introduced the invisible hand metaphor to describe how individuals’ pursuit of self-interest in a free market unintentionally benefits society.

Correct Answer: E. Einstein’s general theory of relativity

Einstein’s general theory of relativity: presented on 25 November 1915 by Albert Einstein. Describes gravity as the curvature of spacetime due to mass and energy. Replaced Newton’s theory of gravity on cosmic scales.

String Theory: A theoretical framework where point-like particles are replaced by one-dimensional strings. Emerged in the late 20th century, not in Einstein’s era. Still unproven.

Quantum Theory: Originated with Max Planck (1900) and later developed by Einstein, Bohr, Heisenberg, etc. Describes physical phenomena at the atomic and subatomic levels.

The Big Bang Theory: Explains the origin of the universe from an initial singularity—not related to the 1915 event.

Dalton’s Atomic Theory: Proposed by John Dalton in the early 1800s.
Laid the foundation for modern atomic chemistry, describing atoms as indivisible units.

Correct Answer: D. 1 only

Before meiosis, the cell undergoes interphase, during which the DNA content replicates. This ensures that each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids. So, statement 1 is correct.

Spindle fiber formation occurs during prophase I, which is part of meiosis itself — not before it. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

Crossing over occurs during prophase I — specifically in the pachytene stage. So, again, this happens during meiosis, not before it. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Correct Answer: C. 1, 2, and 3

Capsid: HIV contains a capsid, which serves as a protein shell surrounding the viral RNA. Since it’s a protein, it contains peptide bonds.

Envelope: The Envelope is the lipid bilayer derived from the host cell membrane. Since the cell membrane contains protein channels and other signaling proteins, it contains peptide bonds.

Reverse transcriptase: This is a viral enzyme responsible for converting viral RNA into DNA. As an enzyme, it’s a protein; therefore, it contains peptide bonds.

Correct answer: A. 1, 2, and 3 only

1. Germinal epithelial cells in the ovary
- These are somatic cells that give rise to oogonia.
- Ploidy: Diploid (2n)
2. Oogonia
- Formed from germinal epithelial cells via mitosis.
- Ploidy: Diploid (2n)
3. Primary oocyte
- Formed from oogonia via the growth phase, still no meiosis yet.
- Ploidy: Diploid (2n)
- Begins meiosis I, but is arrested in prophase I until puberty.
4. Secondary oocyte
- Gametes formed after meiosis I are completed at puberty.
- Meiosis I is a reduction division, so:
- Ploidy: Haploid (n)
- It is arrested in metaphase II until fertilization.
Diploid cells: 1 (germinal epithelial cells), 2 (oogonia), and 3 (primary oocyte)
Haploid cell: 4 (secondary oocyte)

Correct Answer: A. 4 only

Statement 1: They alter the shape of the active site.
Incorrect. Only non-competitive inhibitors alter the enzyme’s shape. Competitive inhibitors do not change the shape — they just block the active site.

Statement 2: They denature the enzyme. Incorrect. Most reversible inhibitors do not denature the enzyme.

Statement 3: They increase the activation energy of the reaction.

Incorrect. Enzyme inhibitors reduce the rate of reaction but do not directly increase activation energy.

Statement 4: They reduce the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Correct. All enzyme inhibitors — regardless of mechanism — lower the reaction rate by interfering with enzyme function.

So, only statement 4 is correct.

Correct Answer: E. Bases in DNA may form hydrogen bonds with uracil bases.

Option A: rRNA has anticodons that bind to tRNA.
Incorrect. rRNA does not have anticodons. It forms the core of the ribosome and helps catalyze protein synthesis. tRNA has anticodons that bind to codons on mRNA, not rRNA>

Option B: Prokaryotic DNA is a single strand that forms a loop.

Incorrect. Prokaryotic DNA is double-stranded. It does form a loop, i.e., circular, but is not single-stranded.

Option C: tRNA is made up of one phosphate-sugar backbone and may have adenosine and thymine bases.

Incorrect. Thymine is not found in RNA. Uracil is used instead of thymine.

Option D: mRNA is made up of a single nucleotide with a codon of uracil, cytosine, and guanine bases.
Incorrect. mRNA is made up of a long chain of nucleotides (at least 3 nucleotides for a codon), not just one.

Option E: Bases in DNA may form hydrogen bonds with uracil bases.

During transcription, RNA polymerase synthesizes a complementary mRNA strand, and mRNA hydrogen bonds with DNA before it gets released.

Correct Answer: E. 1 and 2 only

Statement 1: During inspiration, the pressure within the chest cavity is lower than outside the body.
Correct. Humans breathe via the negative pressure inhalation in which the thoracic cavity expands first, lowering the pressure inside below the atmospheric pressure, leading to inspiration – drawing air into the lungs.

Statement 2: During ventricular systole, the pressure in the atrium is lower than in the ventricles.
Correct. During the ventricular systole, the ventricles contract while AV valves are closed, increasing pressure in the ventricles. Meanwhile, the atria are relaxed, so their pressure is lower than that in the ventricles.

Statement 3: During ventricular systole, the pressure in the aorta is lower than the pressure in the atrium.
Incorrect. During the ventricular systole, the ventricular pressure exceeds the aortic pressure, allowing the aortic valve to open. But the aortic pressure remains significantly higher than atrial pressure, as it’s needed to drive blood throughout the body.

Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, and 3

Relating to the Excretory system and reproductive system, the pituitary gland produces 3 hormones.
ADH — Reduces urine output by promoting water reabsorption in kidneys
LH — Stimulates ovulation in females, testosterone production in males
FSH — Stimulates egg maturation in females, sperm production in males

When pituitary function is reduced, the mentioned functions will be reduced as a result.

Analysis of the given statement

Statement 1: More urine is produced in a male or a female.
Correct. Reduced pituitary function = reduced ADH → Less water reabsorbed → More urine produced.

Statement 2: infertility in a female
Correct. A lack of LH and FSH disrupts the menstrual cycle and ovulation, leading to infertility.

Statement 3: Infertility in a male
Correct. A lack of LH and FSH leads to reduced sperm and testosterone, resulting in infertility.

Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Cell wall: It is composed of cellulose, which contains glucose monomers.

Cell membrane: In the cell membrane, carbohydrates are typically found attached to proteins (forming glycoproteins) or lipids (forming glycolipids) on the outer surface of the cell membrane. They are important for various cellular functions.

Nucleolus: It is the site of rRNA and ribosome production. So, it contains nucleic acids which are composed of ribose sugar, phosphate and base groups. Therefore, the nucleolus contains carbohydrate monomers.

Mitochondrion: Small circular DNAs can be found inside mitochondria, which contain ribose sugar as a component. So, mitochondria also contain carbohydrate monomers.

Correct Answer: A) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: D. cerebrum

Damage to the cerebrum, particularly areas like the hippocampus (part of the temporal lobe), can lead to loss of memory. The cerebrum is responsible for memory, conscious thought, voluntary movement, learning, personality.

Spinal cord is mainly responsible for transmitting nerve signals between the brain and body.

Medulla - Controls vital functions (e.g., breathing, heartbeat)

Cerebellum - Balance, coordination, fine motor skills

Hypothalamus - Regulates body temperature, hunger, and hormones

Correct Answer: C) 2 only

Student 1: Information for both animal cells and bacterial cells is correct. An animal cell is an eukaryotic cell, and the genetic material is stored in a specific double membrane-bound place called the nucleus. Bacterial cells contain 70S ribosomes, while eukaryotic cells contain larger 80S ribosomes.

Student 2: Information provided for both categories is not correct. Liver cells do not possess cell walls. The cell wall is usually a feature of plant cells. Bacteria a prokaryotes and their characteristic is that it does not contain membrane-bound organelles, including mitochondria.

Student 3: Though the fact about animal cells is true, that about bacterial cells is completely false. 70S ribosomes are present in the mitochondria of liver cells. In the case of bacterial cells, they are prokaryotes and its characteristic is that it does not contain membrane-bound organelles, including a nucleus. So, genetic material is stored in the designated area inside the cytoplasm called the nucleoid.

Student 4: Both facts are correct. Animal cells, like liver cells, contain circular DNA inside the mitochondria. Prokaryotes contain plasmids that carry extra genes that provide them with additional traits or advantages, especially in specific environments.

Therefore, students 1 and 4 gave totally correct answers

Correct Answer: E. 3 only

DNA sequence given
CAT TGG GCA TCG

Analysis of the given statements
1. 2 H-bonds form between A-T and 3 H-bonds form between G-C. There are 5 As and Ts in the sequence, so 10 H-bonds form. There are 7 Gs and Cs in the sequence, so 24 H-bonds form.
In total, 21 + 10 = 31 H-bonds (not 29 bonds). Therefore, the given statement is incorrect.
2. Phosphodiester bonds connect nucleotides in a single strand.
For n nucleotides in a single strand, there are (n – 1) phosphodiester bonds:
12−1 = 11 bonds
The given statement is incorrect because it says 12 bonds.
3. In RNAs, Uracil base is used instead of thymine.
Given DNA sequence: CAT TGG GCA TCG
mRNA sequence : GUA ACC CGU AGC
tRNA sequence : CAU UGG GCA UCG
So, it is true that the tRNA molecules contain a total of 3 uracil bases.

Correct Answer: D. 3 in 8

Correct Answer: D. 3 only

Glycolysis is a process where one glucose molecule is broken down into 2 pyruvate molecules through several steps. During glycolysis, 2 net ATP and 2 NADH (reduced NAD) are produced. No CO₂ is produced.

During pyruvate decarboxylation, 1 CO₂ and 1 NADH are produced.

A product that is produced in both processes is NADH/ reduced NAD.

Correct Answer: D. It has a primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure.

The human hemoglobin molecule has four polypeptide chains: 2 alpha (α) and 2 beta (β) chains. These interact to form one functional protein.
Thus, it has a quaternary structure.

Quaternary structure develops due to the existence of primary, secondary, and tertiary structures.

Thus, hemoglobin has all four levels of protein structure: Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, and Quaternary.

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2, and 3

The main pump that contributes to the resting membrane potential is the sodium–potassium pump (Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase). It is an active transporter.

There is also K⁺ that leaks out of the neuron through K⁺ leak channels. The movement is passive through protein channels, and it is a form of facilitated diffusion.

Since ATP is needed to fuel the Na⁺/K⁺ pump, respiration also indirectly supports resting potential.

So, all three processes take place during the establishment of the resting potential.

Correct Answer: A. Carbon dioxide combines with an acceptor compound which breaks into two and each is reduced by hydrogen split from water by light.

Option A: This option correctly states the Kelvin cycle steps of photosynthesis.

Option B: Incorrect. Light splits water → produces H⁺, e⁻, and O₂ (not OH⁻ combining with anything).

Option C: Incorrect. This describes aerobic respiration, not photosynthesis.

Option D: Incorrect. CO₂ is not split by light. Light splits water, not CO₂.

Option E: Incorrect. CO₂ fixation occurs in light-independent reactions.

Correct Answer: A. 1, 2, and 3

Transgenic DNA refers to DNA that has been artificially introduced into an organism from a different species. So, it could be any DNA with a foreign DNA from another species, such as
1. Invertebrate animal DNA in mammal DNA
2. Prokaryotic DNA in plant DNA
3. Plant DNA in animal DNA

Correct Answer: C. chlorophyll from a solution of different plant pigments – homogeneous; chromatography.
Option A: Salt solution is homogeneous, but paper filtration cannot separate dissolved salt.
Option B: Salt solution is homogeneous, not heterogeneous
Simple distillation can separate water, but the mixture type is wrong.
Option C: Plant pigment solution is homogeneous, and chromatography is perfect for separating pigments like chlorophyll. Thus, this is correct.

Correct Answer: E. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶

₈¹⁶O²⁻
Atomic number = 8
Mass number = 16
Number of electrons = 10
It’s correct electron configuration would be 1s² 2s² 2p⁶.

Correct answer: A. Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂

An oxidising agent is the substance that causes oxidation (it gains electrons and is reduced). So, we have to look for changes in oxidation states or electron transfer.

Correct Answer: B. 2

Correct Answer: D. 10.0 g of helium gas

Correct Answer: E. 150 cm³

Correct Answer: C. Hex-2-ene

Structural isomers, also known as constitutional isomers, are molecules with the same molecular formula but different structural formulas (different connectivity of atoms).
Methyl cyclopentane has molecular formula of C6H12

Option A: Hexane has a molecular formula of C₆H₁₄.So, this cannot be the isomer of methyl-cyclopentane.
Option B: Cyclohexane has a molecular formula of C₆H₁₀. This also cannot be the isomer of methyl-cyclopentane.
Option C: Hex-2-ene has a molecular formula of C₆H₁₂. This compound has the same molecular formula as methyl-cyclopentane with a different structure (with a double bond). Therefore, this is the correct structural isomer of methyl-cyclopentane.
Option D: 2,2-dimethylbutane has a molecular formula of C₆H₁₄. Not an isomer.
Option E: 2-methylpentane has a molecular formula of C₆H₁₄. Not an isomer.

Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only

In an aqueous solution of sodium chloride, there will be water molecules and sodium chloride in their ionic states — Na⁺ and Cl⁻.

Therefore, water is a covalent compound — a molecule. And Na⁺ and Cl⁻ are ions. There is no single atom involved.

Thus, the correct option is option A.

Correct Answer: B. 1 and 3 only

Solubility of a substance is the maximum amount of that substance that can be dissolved in a particular solvent at a given temperature.

And the solubility constant K_sp is temperature-dependent. For a solution that consists of a gas, the constant will also depend on pressure. Greater K_sp leads to greater solubility of the solute. Generally speaking, the solubility product constant increases with increasing temperature for non-gas solutes. Therefore, if potassium nitrate is cooled down to 25 °C from 80 °C, the K_sp decreases, leading to lesser solubility and consequently, deposition of undissolved potassium nitrate. Since less potassium nitrate dissolves in the solution, its concentration is diluted; however, both the solvent and solution are in a closed container, the total mass of the solvent will remain unchanged.

Thus, among the given 3 facts, only facts 1 and 3 are correct.

Correct Answer: C. Iodine

From the first given fact “Element X is a grey solid”, we can exclude the gas element from the options — Fluorine.

Then, the question said it combines with chlorine to form a polar molecule with the formula XCl with an oxidation number of +1.
From this fact, we can exclude Manganese from the option, which usually has variable oxidation numbers between +2 and +7: not +1.
We can also exclude carbon because carbon usually bonds with chlorine with a +4 oxidation number, forming CCl4.

Now, we are down to 2 choices — Lithium and Iodine.

Let’s look at the last fact — it says that in a potassium iodide solution, it dissolves to form a coloured solution. At 500 °C, it becomes a coloured vapour. Lithium metal usually does not dissolve in solutions (only its ionic compound state dissolves). So, we can exclude Lithium.

Iodine sublimes on heating — it turns directly from solid to gas.
The vapour is a distinct violet or purple color.
This is a characteristic property of elemental iodine.

Thus, the element X is iodine.

Correct Answer: C. 4 bp; 0 lp; 109.5°

According to the lewis structure, the central atom “Silicon” has 4 electron domains without any lone pair of electrons.

Thus, the shape of the molecule will be tetrahedral with a bond angle of 109.5°.

Thus, the correct option is option C.

A document has been prepared to include the images and diagrams related to the questions, placed directly below the worked solutions for clarity and reference.

Correct Answer: A) 1, 2, and 3

A document has been prepared to include the images and diagrams related to the questions, placed directly below the worked solutions for clarity and reference.