IMAT 2022 Worked Solution

To identify the conclusion of the passage, let's first break it down into its key components.

The passage discusses the treatment of depression, as indicated by the introductory sentence. It then highlights that despite advancements in treatment, the prevalence of depression remains high. The passage attributes this persistence to three key issues.

A closer look at these issues reveals the phrase “for many understandable reasons,” suggesting that these challenges arise from valid, inherent factors that may be difficult to alter through external intervention. Consequently, this implies that the prevalence of depression may not decrease in the future.

Option A Explanation:
A) One of the reasons why depression remains so widespread is the high rate of relapse.
This option presents a fact rather than the conclusion of the entire paragraph.

Option B Explanation:
B) Depression is likely to remain a significant and largely intractable mental health problem.
This option correctly states the conclusion of the paragraph as it is derived before.

Option C Explanation:
C) Access, compliance and relapse are the three key issues in the treatment of depression.
This option presents a fact rather than the conclusion of the entire paragraph.

Option D Explanation:
D) Access to treatment for depression tends to be restricted to people in urban areas of wealthy countries.
This option presents a fact rather than the conclusion of the entire paragraph.

Option E Explanation:
E) Over the past 30 years, treatments have not reduced the prevalence of or disability caused by depression.
This option presents a fact rather than the conclusion of the entire paragraph.

Assumptions are unstated facts within a paragraph that relate the argument to the conclusion.

To answer this question, we must first identify the conclusion of the paragraph. The argument says that children, being at vulnerable age, should not be subjected to the promotion of the ideologies of religion or political institutions. The conclusion is explicitly stated at the end: “education provided in schools should be based on scientific atheism”. From these facts, we can assume that scientific atheism is permitted in schools because it is not considered an ideology.

Option A Explanation:
A) Everyone needs a belief system to guide them in life.
This is not stated in the paragraph (could be an assumption) but it does not relate the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is not an assumption.

Option B Explanation:
B) Scientific atheism is not an ideology.
This relates the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is the correct underlying assumption of the above argument.

Option C Explanation:
C) Some governments cannot afford to fund universal education.
It does not relate the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is not an assumption.

Option D Explanation:
D) Many adults reject the beliefs they were taught at school.
It does not relate the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is not an assumption.

Option E Explanation:
E) The aim of education is to offer a vision of life.
It does not relate the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is not an assumption.

The argument concludes that self-confidence leads to success based on a study of successful people. However, it fails to consider the possibility that success itself might have contributed to their self-confidence rather than the other way around. This is a causation vs. correlation fallacy—just because successful people tend to have self-confidence does not mean self-confidence caused their success.

Option A Explanation:
A) It assumes that self-confidence is responsible for success, and not vice versa.
This is the best statement that points out the flaw in the argument.

Option B Explanation:
B) It relies on different senses of the expression 'self-confidence'.
The argument does not shift between different meanings of "self-confidence"; it consistently refers to belief in one's own abilities.

Option C Explanation:
C) It ignores the significance of other factors, such as luck.
While other factors like luck may contribute to success, the main flaw here is the assumption about causation, not the exclusion of other factors.

Option D Explanation:
D) It assumes that everyone can become self-confident.
The argument does not claim that everyone is capable of developing self-confidence; it simply states that self-confidence is necessary for success.

Option E Explanation:
E) It justifies a claim on the basis of how things were in the past.
The study is based on contemporary research, not historical analysis, so this does not apply.

The original argument follows this logical structure:

• Premise: A mind requires self-consciousness.
• Premise: Machines do not have self-consciousness.
• Conclusion: Therefore, machines do not have minds.

In other words:

• If A (mind) requires B (self-consciousness),
• And X (machines) do not have B (self-consciousness),
• Then X (machines) do not have A (minds).

Option A Explanation:
A) The morally best option is that which maximises benefit. Larger charities are able to provide the most benefit from donations, therefore it is morally best to choose larger charities to donate to.

• Premise 1: If an option is morally best, then it maximizes benefit. (If A → B)
• Premise 2: Larger charities maximize benefit. (B is true)
• Conclusion: Therefore, larger charities are morally best. (A is true)

It does not follow the same structure as the original argument, because there is no negation of a premise.

Option B Explanation:
B) Only true beliefs can be knowledge. My belief that the world is spherical is true, therefore I know that the world is spherical.

• Premise 1: If something is knowledge, then it must be a true belief. (If A → B)
• Premise 2: My belief is true. (B is true)
• Conclusion: Therefore, I have knowledge. (A is true)

It does not follow the same structure as the original argument.

Option C Explanation:
C) Trust and reliance are not the same thing, because trust is a mental attitude, whereas reliance is not.
This is a definitional argument, not a conditional statement. There is no "If A → B" structure.

Option D Explanation:
D) To count as an emotion, a mental state needs to have representational content. Depression does not have representational content, therefore depression is not an emotion.

• Premise 1: If something is an emotion, then it must have representational content. (If A → B)
• Premise 2: Depression does not have representational content. (Not B)
• Conclusion: Therefore, depression is not an emotion. (Not A)

This follows the same structure as the original argument.

Option E Explanation:
E) There is no obligation to keep promises to someone after they have died, since the virtue of keeping promises is to promote the promisee’s wellbeing, and their capacity for wellbeing ceases upon death.

• Premise 1: If there is an obligation to keep promises, the promisee must have well-being. (If A → B)
• Premise 2: The promisee no longer has well-being. (Not B)
• Conclusion: Therefore, there is no obligation to keep promises. (Not A)

Option E is a closer logical match because it deals with defining categories like the original argument (emotion/representational content), but Option D is the most structurally aligned.

The passage argues that people who accept or support intentional harm (e.g., eating meat) must fully understand the consequences of that harm (e.g., how animals are reared and killed) in order to take full responsibility for their decisions. And if a person supports an action that causes harm, they must educate themselves about the details of that harm to fully take responsibility.

Option A Explanation:
A) Farmers who need to kill crop-eating insects should find out which pesticides are the least harmful to other kinds of wildlife.
This is about minimizing harm rather than accepting responsibility for a harmful choice.

Option B Explanation:
B) A police officer who accidentally kills someone in the line of duty should be willing to tell the victim's family about the circumstances of the death.
The focus here is on informing others rather than educating oneself about harm before making a decision.

Option C Explanation:
C) A lawyer prosecuting an individual for murder should be aware of any serious difficulties in the life of the defendant in the years leading up to the crime.
This is about understanding the defendant’s background, not about taking responsibility for supporting harm.

Option D Explanation:
D) Citizens who support imposing the death penalty in some criminal cases should educate themselves about the procedures used to administer it.
This is the best match to the principle used in the argument.

Option E Explanation:
E) Scientists who use dead animal specimens for the purpose of an experiment should be certain there are no alternative research methods available.
This is about avoiding harm if possible, not about educating oneself about harm before accepting it.

Let:
A = the total weight of apples.
L = the total weight of limes.
O = the weight of the single sack of oranges.

Given: A = 2L

The total weight of all sacks:
8 + 13 + 17 + 18 + 22 + 24 = 102 kg

A + L + O = 102 kg
2L + L + O = 102 kg
3L + O = 102 kg

Substitute possible values of O from the options and check whether the resultant L is an integer.

If O = 18
3L + 18 = 102
3L = 84
L = 28 (Integer, possible)

Check if L = 28 can be formed by the remaining weights: 8, 13, 17, 22, 24.
No valid combination.

If O = 24
3L + 24 = 102
3L = 78
L = 26

Check if L = 26 can be formed by the remaining weights: 8, 13, 17, 18, 22.
Possible combination: 8 + 18 = 26. ✔️

This is valid.
Therefore, total weight of limes (L) = 26 kg (8 + 18)
Total weight of apples (A) = 2L = 52 kg (22 + 17 + 13)
Total weight of orange (O) = 24 kg

Verification:
52 + 26 + 24 = 102 kg ✔️

Thus, the weight of the sack of oranges is:
E) 24 kg

This question can be solved by using the combination formula because it is about selection of objects (home) where the order does not matter (no two students in the class have both visited each other).

The number of ways to choose ‘r’ (2 homes) out of ‘n’ distinct objects (10 homes) is given by:

nCr = n! / [r!(n−r)!] = 10! / [2!(10−2)!] = 10! / [2!8!] = 9 × 5 = 45 total visits

For each student: 45 / 10 = 4.5 visits

Since the answer must be an integer, each student visits a maximum of 4 other students.

Thus, the correct option is option C) 4.

The percentage increase in each item collected between 1997 and 2017 must be determined first.

Since we cannot use calculators, it is more efficient to use the approximate value of the given numbers.

1,547,346 is approximately 15 · 10⁵
2,412,151 is approximately 25 · 10⁵
263,982 is approximately 25 · 10⁴
1,578,834 is approximately 15 · 10⁵
249,202 is approximately 25 · 10⁴
749,360 is approximately 75 · 10⁴

Percentage Increase = (new value − old value) ÷ old value × 100%

% increase in cigarette butts = (25 · 10⁵ − 15 · 10⁵) ÷ (15 · 10⁵) × 100% = nearly 60%

% increase in plastic bottles = (15 · 10⁵ − 25 · 10⁴) ÷ (25 · 10⁴) × 100% = nearly 500%

% increase in straws and stirrers = (75 · 10⁴ − 25 · 10⁴) ÷ (25 · 10⁴) × 100% = nearly 200%

The only option with graph that correctly represents the calculated percentages is the option D).

Option A Explanation:
Former UN Secretary-General, but not known for a speech on this date.

Option B Explanation:
Former Prime Minister of Pakistan, but was assassinated in 2007.

Option C Explanation:
On 12th July 2013, Malala Yousafzai delivered a powerful speech at the United Nations calling for worldwide access to education, particularly for girls. This day, her 16th birthday, was later declared "Malala Day" by the UN in recognition of her advocacy.

Option D Explanation:
Former US President, but did not give this speech.

Option E Explanation:
Burmese activist and Nobel laureate, but not linked to this UN speech.

Option A Explanation:
The Haka is a traditional war dance of the Māori people of New Zealand.

Option B Explanation:
Flamenco originated in Spain, particularly in the Andalusia region, not Argentina.

Option C Explanation:
Samba is a famous Brazilian dance and music genre, closely associated with Carnival.

Option D Explanation:
Bharatanatyam is a classical Indian dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, India.

Option E Explanation:
Mambo originated in Cuba, blending Afro-Cuban and jazz influences.

Option A Explanation:
On the Road (1957) by Jack Kerouac → Did not win a Pulitzer Prize.

Option B Explanation:
The Great Gatsby (1925) by F. Scott Fitzgerald → Was not recognized with a Pulitzer and gained major recognition only later.

Option C Explanation:
The Catcher in the Rye (1951) by J.D. Salinger → Did not win a Pulitzer Prize.

Option D Explanation:
The Old Man and the Sea (1952) was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1953. It is one of Hemingway’s most famous works and contributed to his Nobel Prize in Literature in 1954.

Option E Explanation:
Moby-Dick (1851) by Herman Melville → Published long before the Pulitzer Prize existed (established in 1917).

Slavic languages belong to the Indo-European language family and are divided into three branches:

1. West Slavic: Czech, Slovak, Polish
2. East Slavic: Russian, Ukrainian, Belarusian
3. South Slavic: Slovene, Serbian, Croatian, Bulgarian, etc.

Option A Explanation:
Czech → West Slavic

Option B Explanation:
Lithuanian (B) is NOT a Slavic language. It belongs to the Baltic language family, which is also part of the Indo-European family but forms a separate branch alongside Latvian.

Option C Explanation:
Ukrainian (C) → East Slavic

Option D Explanation:
Slovene (D) → South Slavic

Option E Explanation:
Polish (E) → West Slavic

Analytic philosophy is a tradition that emphasizes logical analysis, language, and clarity of argument, emerging in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

Option A Explanation:
Hans Jonas was a philosopher of existentialism and bioethics, not analytic philosophy.

Option B Explanation:
Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz (B) was an early modern philosopher and mathematician but lived long before analytic philosophy emerged.

Option C Explanation:
Michel Foucault was a continental philosopher, associated with postmodernism and critical theory.

Option D Explanation:
Bertrand Russell (D) is one of the founders of analytic philosophy, along with G.E. Moore and Ludwig Wittgenstein. His work in logic, philosophy of language, and epistemology—especially in Principia Mathematica (co-authored with Alfred North Whitehead)—laid the foundation for analytic philosophy.

Option E Explanation:
Francis Bacon (E) was a Renaissance philosopher, known for developing the scientific method, not analytic philosophy.

Option A Explanation:
Portugal (A) was part of the Roman province Lusitania.

Option B Explanation:
The Roman Empire expanded across Europe, North Africa, and the Middle East, but it never fully incorporated Denmark into its territory.

Option C Explanation:
Belgium (C) was part of the province Gallia Belgica.

Option D Explanation:
Slovenia (D) was part of Pannonia and Noricum.

Option E Explanation:
Egypt (E) was a key Roman province after being annexed by Augustus in 30 BCE.

Option A Explanation:
Hydrogen was discovered by Henry Cavendish in 1766.

Option B Explanation:
Uranium (B) was discovered by Martin Heinrich Klaproth in 1789.

Option C Explanation:
Boron (C) was discovered by Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac and Louis-Jacques Thénard in 1808.

Option D Explanation:
Marie and Pierre Curie discovered Polonium (Po) in 1898 while researching radioactivity in uranium ores. They named it after Poland, Marie Curie's homeland, as a symbolic gesture for Polish independence.

Option E Explanation:
Nitrogen (E) was discovered by Daniel Rutherford in 1772.

Option A Explanation:
Malta recognizes Roman Catholicism as the state religion, as stated in its Constitution.

Option B Explanation:
Spain does NOT have an official state religion.
While Catholicism is historically dominant, Spain's 1978 Constitution established secularism, meaning the state does not officially recognize any religion.

Option C Explanation:
Greece recognizes Eastern Orthodoxy (Greek Orthodox Church) as the prevailing religion in its Constitution.

Option D Explanation:
Denmark has the Evangelical Lutheran Church as the state church, which is supported by the government.

Option E Explanation:
England has the Church of England (Anglicanism) as the official state church, with the British monarch as its Supreme Governor.

Option A Explanation:
Jean-Claude Juncker served as President of the European Commission from 1 November 2014 to 30 November 2019. He was succeeded by Ursula von der Leyen, who took office on 1 December 2019.

Option B Explanation:
Christine Lagarde became President of the European Central Bank (ECB) in 2019, not the president of the European Commission.

Option C Explanation:
Alexis Tsipras was the Prime Minister of Greece (2015–2019).

Option D Explanation:
Mario Draghi was the President of the ECB (2011–2019) and later Prime Minister of Italy (2021–2022).

Option E Explanation:
José Manuel Barroso (E) was the President of the European Commission before Juncker (2004–2014).

Option A Explanation:
Never had a female Prime Minister in the 20th century. The first female Prime Minister, Magdalena Andersson, took office in 2021.

Option B Explanation:
Margaret Thatcher became the first female Prime Minister in 1979.

Option C Explanation:
Benazir Bhutto became the first female Prime Minister in 1988.

Option D Explanation:
Indira Gandhi became the first female Prime Minister in 1966.

Option E Explanation:
Golda Meir became the first female Prime Minister in 1969.

The experiment investigates the effect of temperature and pH on enzyme P and Q. Both optimal temperature and pH for each enzyme are given.
pH : 4.5 for P and 9.5 for Q
Temp : 55 °C for P and 25 °C for Q

5 graph options are given and we need to find the one that features greatest enzyme activity for their specific optimal pH or temperature.

Option A Explanation:
This is enzyme activity vs temperature graph. From the graph, it can be noted that optimal temperatures are around 45°C for P and 35°C for Q. This data does not match the given data. Thus, this option is false.

Option B Explanation:
This is enzyme activity vs temperature graph. From the graph, it can be noted that optimal temperatures are around 25°C for P and 50°C for Q. This data does not match the given data. Thus, this option is false.

Option C Explanation:
This is enzyme activity vs pH graph. From the graph, it can be noted that optimal pH are around 4.5 for P and 10.5 for Q. This data does not match the given data. Thus, this option is false.

Option D Explanation:
This is enzyme activity vs pH graph. From the graph, it can be noted that optimal pH are around 5 for P and 9 for Q. This data does not match the given data. Thus, this option is false.

Option E Explanation:
This is enzyme activity vs temperature graph. From the graph, it can be noted that optimal temperatures are around 55°C for P and 25°C for Q. This data correctly matches the given data. Thus, this option is true.

Since the membrane in this case is permeable to both water and sugars, diffusion of sugars will occur until equilibrium is reached, rather than osmosis being the dominant process. Osmosis (water movement) occurs primarily when the membrane is selectively permeable, meaning it allows water to pass but restricts solute movement.

Option A Explanation:
Maltose is more concentrated on side A than on side B. Therefore, it will move from side A to side B. This option accurately describes the process.

Option B Explanation:
Sucrose is more concentrated on side B than on side A. Therefore, it will move from side B to A. However, the option says it will move from side A to B. Thus, this option is false.

Option C Explanation:
Glucose is more concentrated on side A than on side B. Therefore, it will move from side A to side B. However, the option says it will move from side B to A. Thus, this option is false.

Option D Explanation:
Osmosis (water movement) occurs primarily when the membrane is selectively permeable, meaning it allows water to pass but restricts solute movement. Since only water movement can change the solution level and osmosis is not the primary process, this option is false.

Option E Explanation:
Since 2 solutions are separated by a membrane which allows the passage of water and all three sugars and there is the concentration gradient, the solutes (primarily) will move down the concentration gradient until equilibrium is reached.

The photomicrograph of plant cells with different stages of cell cycle (Mitotic phase and Interphase) is given.

Mitosis is conventionally broken down into five stages:

1. Prophase – chromosomes condense, spindle fibers form, nuclear envelope breaks down.
2. Metaphase – chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.
3. Anaphase – sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.
4. Telophase – nuclear envelopes reform, chromosomes decondense.
5. Cytokinesis – cytoplasm divides, forming two daughter cells.

From the given photomicrograph, it can be noted that

• Label no.1 indicates the metaphase because the chromosomes are all at the metaphase plate.
• Label no.2 indicates the anaphase because the chromatids of each chromosome have separated, and the daughter chromosomes are moving to the ends of the cell.
• Label no.3 indicates the interphase because the nuclear envelope is intact and no separated and condensed chromosomes can be seen.
• Label no.4 indicates the cytokinesis because the cell plate, which will divide the cytoplasm in two, is growing toward the perimeter of the parent cell.
• Label no.5 indicates the prophase because the chromosomes are condensing and the nucleolus is beginning to disappear.

Thus, the correct label which indicates the anaphase is label no.2 (Option B).

Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder, meaning the defective gene is located on the X chromosome.

Let X_h be the hemophilic gene.

• For a daughter to have hemophilia, she must inherit two copies of the defective gene (X_hX_h).
• For a son, only one copy is needed (X_hY) since males have only one X chromosome.

It is given that the male child has haemophilia (X_hY). Since the father contributes the Y chromosome, the X_h must have come from the mother.

Thus, the parents' genotypes can be determined as:

• Father: XY (unaffected)
• Mother: X_HX_h (carrier)

Possible genotypes of the second child

• Female child: 100% chance of being X_HX_h (carrier, but unaffected).
• Male child: 50% chance of being XY (healthy) or X_hY (hemophilic).
• In other words, only 1 out of 4 children will have the disease gene.

Since the probability of having a male or female child is ½, the chance that the second child is a boy with hemophilia is:
½ × ½ = ¼ = 25%

The probability that the second child does not have hemophilia is:
1 − ¼ = ¾ = 75%

Since the first child has hemophilia, it is 100% certain that the mother is a carrier (X_HX_h).

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 (option D)

The pedigree diagram shows the inheritance of a dominant condition in a family of cats. Black dots represent cats with six toes (dominant condition).

Analysis of the given statements

1. Cat P could be homozygous for the condition.
   This statement is impossible because if cat P is homozygous (2 six toes genes), all of the offsprings will have the condition because 1 gene each is contributed by each parent.
2. Over two generations, 12 cats were produced in the cross-breeding.
   The pedigree shows 3 generations of cat family and on the second generation, 6 cats are produced and on the third generation, 4 cats are produced. Thus, the total is 10, not 12 for two offspring generations.
3. Breeding cat Q with cat R could produce 3 offspring, each with a different genotype.
   Since cat P is heterozygous, parents of cat Q and R are also heterozygous and the cat Q and R will also be heterozygous. Thus, if genes of cat Q and cat R are crossed, it is true that there can be 3 offsprings, each with a different genotype (homozygous six toes, heterozygous and homozygous five toes)

Thus, the correct option is option C) 3 only

The cell membrane is primarily composed of a phospholipid bilayer, where:

• Hydrophilic (polar) heads face outward, interacting with the extracellular and intracellular environments.
• Hydrophobic (nonpolar) tails face inward, forming a barrier to most water-soluble substances.

The membrane is embedded with:

• Proteins (integral and peripheral), which function in transport, signaling, and structural support.
• Cholesterol molecules, which help maintain membrane fluidity and stability.
• Carbohydrates, which attach to:
  • Lipids, forming glycolipids.
  • Proteins, forming glycoproteins.

These carbohydrate complexes are found on the extracellular surface and play key roles in cell recognition and signaling.

Option A Explanation:
This option is false because cholesterol molecules is seen span the entire phospholipid bilayer like transmembrane proteins do. Cholesterol is mainly embedded within one leaflet of the bilayer, with its hydrophilic hydroxyl (-OH) group aligning near the polar heads of phospholipids and its hydrophobic steroid ring structure interacting with fatty acid chains.

Option B Explanation:
This option is false because it incorrectly states the orientation of carbohydrate complexes. They are found on the extracellular surface, not on the intracellular side.

Option C Explanation:
This option correctly states the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane.

Option D Explanation:
This option is false because it incorrectly states the orientation of phospholipids. In reality, the hydrophilic heads face outward toward the aqueous environment, while the hydrophobic tails face inward, away from water.

Option E Explanation:
This option is false because it incorrectly states the orientation of phospholipids. In reality, the hydrophilic heads face outward toward the aqueous environment, while the hydrophobic tails face inward, away from water.

During the contraction of the atria, a phase called atrial systole, the muscles of the atrial walls contract. This contraction pushes blood from the atria into the ventricles. As the atria contract:

• The volume of the atria decreases, because the atrial walls are squeezing inward.
• Atrial pressure increases due to the reduced volume and the force of contraction.
• The atrioventricular (AV) valves — the tricuspid valve on the right side and the mitral (bicuspid) valve on the left side — are open at this stage. This allows the blood to flow smoothly from the atria into the ventricles.

At this point, the semilunar valves (leading to the pulmonary artery and aorta) remain closed, ensuring blood only moves into the ventricles.

Atrial contraction completes the filling of the ventricles with blood before the ventricles themselves contract (ventricular systole).

The movement of water from the glomerulus into the tubules is influenced by three pressures:

1. Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure
   • This is the blood pressure inside the glomerular capillaries.
   • It favors filtration by pushing water and solutes out of the capillaries into Bowman’s capsule.
   • Source: Mainly the contraction of the left ventricle of the heart.
   • ~55 mmHg (value in humans).
2. Capsular Hydrostatic Pressure
   • Pressure exerted by the fluid already present in Bowman’s capsule and tubules.
   • Opposes filtration by pushing back against the incoming fluid from the glomerulus.
   • ~15 mmHg (value in humans).
3. Oncotic pressure
   • Caused by plasma proteins (like albumin) that remain in the capillaries.
   • This opposes filtration by pulling water back into the capillaries.
   • ~30 mmHg (value in humans).

Analysis of the given conditions :

1. An increase in pressure caused by the left ventricle of the heart : This condition can increase the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus, pushing water to move from the glomerulus to the tubules (filtration).
2. The effect of blood proteins on the direction of osmosis : Proteins are the major contributor of the oncotic pressure, and this pressure pulls water back into the glomerular capillaries, opposing filtration.
3. An increase in pressure of the liquid in the tubule : This condition opposes filtration by reducing the pressure gradient between the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule.

Thus, only the statement 1 (Option C) correctly describes a condition that causes water to move from the glomerulus into the tubules.

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary, where it is released in response to low blood pressure or dehydration.

• ADH acts on the collecting tubules of the kidneys, increasing water reabsorption by inserting more aquaporin channels into the tubule membranes.
• This reduces water excretion (increases water reabsorption), making the urine more concentrated.
• Any stimulus or drug that inhibits ADH release has the opposite effect, leading to reduced water reabsorption and more dilute urine.

Since Drug Q reduces ADH release, it will:

• Decrease water reabsorption in the collecting tubules.
• Increase water excretion, producing dilute urine.
• Lower the concentration of urea in the urine due to increased water content.

The only row that correctly identifies the organ that releases ADH and its effect is row 4 (Option E).

Nervous system overview

Nervous system is generally divided into 2 main parts:

Central nervous system (process information and coordinates response)

• Brain and spinal cord

Peripheral nervous system

• Enteric nervous system (controls the GI tract)
• Somatic nervous system (controls voluntary movements and transmits sensory information)
• Autonomic nervous system (regulate involuntary function)
  • Sympathetic nervous system (Fight or flight response)
  • Parasympathetic nervous system (Rest and digest response)

Nerve pathways are generally divided into 2 parts:

• Sensory (Afferent) pathways
• Motor (Efferent) pathways

Option A Explanation:
The brain and spinal cord are parts of the CNS and work together, not in opposition. Thus, this option is false.

Option B Explanation:
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and work antagonistically to regulate involuntary functions. They have opposing effects on target organs, e.g.; activating the sympathetic pathway increases the heart rate while activating the parasympathetic pathway decreases the heart rate. Thus, this option is true.

Option C Explanation:
Sensory pathways transmit signals to the CNS, while motor pathways carry commands from the CNS to effectors, but they do not directly oppose each other. Thus, this option is false.

Option D Explanation:
Reflex pathways control automatic, rapid responses, while voluntary pathways control conscious movements, but they do not act in direct opposition. Thus, this option is false.

Option E Explanation:
The CNS and PNS work together, not against each other. Thus, this option is false.

Common weak acids are H₂CO₃, HNO₂, H₂SO₃, H₃PO₄ and organic acids such as HCOOH, CH₃COOH.

Common strong acids are substances that completely dissociate into their ions in aqueous solutions, releasing a high concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺). The most important strong acids include hydrochloric acid (HCl), hydrobromic acid (HBr), hydroiodic acid (HI), nitric acid (HNO₃), sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄)—for its first proton—and perchloric acid (HClO₄). Because they ionize fully, strong acids have no equilibrium between the undissociated and dissociated forms in water, unlike weak acids which only partially dissociate.

Thus, from the given acids, the weak acids are 1) H₂CO₃ and 2) HCOOH (Option C)

Hydrogen bonding occurs when a hydrogen atom, covalently bonded to a highly electronegative atom such as nitrogen (N), oxygen (O), or fluorine (F) — known as the hydrogen bond donor — interacts with a lone pair of electrons on another highly electronegative atom, which acts as the hydrogen bond acceptor. The donor provides the hydrogen atom with a partial positive charge (δ⁺), while the acceptor must have a lone pair of electrons to interact electrostatically with the hydrogen.

For hydrogen bonding to occur, it is essential that hydrogen is directly bonded to N, O, or F, because their high electronegativity and small atomic size create the strong polarity necessary for hydrogen bond formation. This interaction significantly influences the physical properties of substances, such as increasing boiling points and solubility in polar solvents like water.

Among the given molecules:

1. H₂O (water) contains hydrogen bonded to oxygen, allowing hydrogen bonding between its molecules.
2. HF (hydrofluoric acid) contains hydrogen bonded to fluorine, which also enables hydrogen bonding.
3. CH₄ (methane) does not contain hydrogen bonded to F, O, or N. Thus, hydrogen bonding cannot occur.

The correct option is option B) 1 and 2 only

The reactant on the left consists of a triester of glycerol (triglyceride). The product includes three molecules of Y and one molecule of glycerol (HO–CH₂–CHOH–CH₂OH): This suggests that the reaction is transesterification, where triglycerides react with an alcohol (X) to produce esters (Y) and glycerol.

This type of reaction is commonly used in biodiesel production, where vegetable oils (triglycerides) react with methanol (or ethanol) in the presence of a catalyst.

In biodiesel production, transesterification is typically catalyzed by acid, base, or enzymes (lipases). While enzymes can be used, they are not essential.

Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only. (Option D)

Mixture: a mixture consists of several different, chemically pure substances. Mixtures do not have constant composition. The mixture can be homogeneous, and heterogeneous.

• Homogeneous mixture: Homogenous mixtures have the same composition throughout the sample. The compositions of such mixtures cannot be seen under a powerful microscope. They are called solutions. Examples are air, seawater, gasoline, etc.
• Heterogeneous mixture: Heterogenous mixtures consist of two or more phases, which have different compositions.

For a mixture to be homogeneous, its components must have similar water solubilities, allowing them to mix uniformly.

Analysis of the given mixtures

1. Heptane and hexane: Since both are hydrophobic molecules, they can mix well with each other forming a homogenous mixture.
2. Water and methanol: Both are hydrophilic molecules. They dissolve completely in each other forming a homogenous mixture.
3. Hexane and water: Hexane is hydrophobic while water is hydrophilic. Due to their differing solubilities, they do not mix forming a heterogeneous mixture.

Thus, only mixtures 1 and 2 are homogenous. (Option E)

Number of neutrons = Mass number (A) − atomic number (Z)

⁷⁹Br⁻ represents a bromide ion (Br⁻) with:

• Mass number (A) = 79 (superscript number)
• Atomic number (Z) = 35 (subscript number)
• Number of neutrons = 79 − 35 = 44

We have to find the particle which has the same number of neutrons as the ⁷⁹Br⁻ ion.

Option A Explanation:
¹⁰¹Ru⁺

• Mass number (A) = 101
• Atomic number (Z) = 44
• Number of neutrons = 101 − 44 = 57

Option B Explanation:
⁸¹Br⁻

• Mass number (A) = 81
• Atomic number (Z) = 35
• Number of neutrons = 81 − 35 = 46

Option C Explanation:
⁷⁹Se

• Mass number (A) = 79
• Atomic number (Z) = 35
• Number of neutrons = 79 − 35 = 44

It has the same number of neutrons as the ⁷⁹Br⁻ ion.

Option D Explanation:
⁸¹Br²⁻

• Mass number (A) = 81
• Atomic number (Z) = 35
• Number of neutrons = 81 − 35 = 46

Option E Explanation:
⁸²Kr

• Mass number (A) = 82
• Atomic number (Z) = 36
• Number of neutrons = 82 − 36 = 46

In BF₃, the central atom is boron (B), which has the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p¹, giving it three valence electrons. Boron shares all three of its outer electrons with fluorine atoms, forming three single covalent bonds in the BF₃ molecule.

In NH₄⁺, the central atom is nitrogen (N), with the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p³, meaning it has five valence electrons. Nitrogen shares four electrons with four hydrogen atoms and uses its lone pair to form a coordinate covalent bond with a proton (H⁺), resulting in the ammonium ion (NH₄⁺). Thus, nitrogen utilizes all of its outer shell electrons in bonding.

In CO₂, the central atom is Carbon (C). It has electron configuration of 1s²2s²2p², meaning it has 4 outer electrons or valence electrons. Carbon shares all of its outer electrons with 2 oxygen atoms by forming CO₂ through 2 double covalent bonds.

In CO, the central atom is carbon (C), which has the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p², providing four valence electrons. Carbon shares all four electrons by forming two double covalent bonds with two oxygen atoms, completing its octet.

Since the central atoms of all the given molecules share all of its outer shell electrons in bonding, the correct option is B) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: C) MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + Cl₂ + 2H₂O

Option A Explanation:
Al₂O₃ + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
In this reaction, no species undergoes oxidation or reduction. The oxidation state of each atom remains unchanged in both the reactants and the products. Therefore, this is not a redox reaction, making this statement false.

Option B Explanation:
Zn + 2HCl → H₂ + ZnCl₂
In this reaction, H is reduced because its oxidation state decreases from +1 to 0.
Zn is oxidized because its oxidation state increases from 0 to +2.
In a redox equation the substance that is reduced is the oxidizing agent, the substance that is oxidized is the reducing agent.
Thus, in this reaction, HCl is the oxidizing agent, not the reducing agent.

Option C Explanation:
MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + Cl₂ + 2H₂O
In this reaction, Mn is reduced because its oxidation state decreases from +4 to +2.
Cl is oxidized because its oxidation state increases from −1 to 0 in Cl₂.
Thus, in this reaction, HCl is the reducing agent.

Option D Explanation:
NH₄ + HCl → NH₄Cl
In this reaction, no species undergoes oxidation or reduction. The oxidation state of each atom remains unchanged in both the reactants and the products. Therefore, this is not a redox reaction.

Option E Explanation:
Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O
In this reaction, no species undergoes oxidation or reduction. The oxidation state of each atom remains unchanged in both the reactants and the products. Therefore, this is not a redox reaction.

To increase the number of H₂S molecules, we need to shift the reaction equilibrium to the left.

Analysis of the given substances

1. Hydrochloric acid: HCl dissociates in solution, increasing the concentration of H⁺ ions. The H⁺ ions can react with OH⁻, reducing its concentration. Since OH⁻ is a reactant, its removal shifts the equilibrium left, increasing H₂S. Thus, adding HCl increases H₂S at equilibrium.
2. Solid potassium hydroxide: KOH dissociates into K⁺ and OH⁻, increasing the OH⁻ concentration. Higher OH⁻ shifts the equilibrium right, consuming H₂S. Thus, adding KOH decreases H₂S, so it does not help.
3. Sodium sulfide: Na₂S dissociates into Na⁺ and S²⁻ ions. Increasing S²⁻ shifts the equilibrium left, forming more H₂S. Thus, adding Na₂S increases H₂S at equilibrium.

Adding Hydrochloric acid (HCl) and Sodium sulfide (Na₂S) will increase the number of molecules of H₂S present at equilibrium.

Thus, the correct option is option A) 1 and 3 only.

Correct Answer: C) Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s)

First, we need to determine the chemical formulas of the molecules involved.

• Barium has 2 valence electrons and forms a Ba²⁺ ion.
• Sulfate ion (SO₄²⁻) has a charge of -2.
• Sodium has 1 valence electron and forms a Na⁺ ion.
• Chlorine has 7 valence electrons and forms a Cl⁻ ion.

Compounds:

• Barium sulfate = BaSO₄
• Barium chloride = BaCl₂
• Sodium sulfate = Na₂SO₄
• Sodium chloride = NaCl

Full molecular equation:
BaCl₂(aq) + Na₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

Full ionic equation:
Ba²⁺(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq) + 2Na⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2Na⁺(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq)

Simplest ionic equation:
Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s)

Option A Explanation:
We can exclude this option because the molecular formula of barium chloride is wrong.

Option B Explanation:
This is the full ionic equation.

Option C Explanation:
This correctly states the simplest ionic equation.

Option D Explanation:
We can exclude this option because the molecular formula of barium sulfate is wrong.

Option E Explanation:
This is the full molecular equation.

• Filtration is used to separate heterogeneous mixtures.
• Fractional distillation is used to separate mixtures containing compounds with different boiling points.
• Centrifugation is used to separate substances based on their density and weight differences.

Since the given mixture is a homogeneous aqueous solution and the components have different boiling points—
ethanal (21°C), ethanol (78°C), and ethanoic acid (118°C)—
fractional distillation can be used to separate the components or isolate the desired ethanol.

Given:
Volume of H₂SO₄ solution = 25 mL = 0.025 L
Concentration of H₂SO₄ = 2.00 mol L⁻¹

Moles of H₂SO₄ = volume × molarity = 0.025 L × 2.00 mol L⁻¹ = 0.050 mol

From the balanced equation, 1 mole of MO reacts with 1 mole of H₂SO₄.
So, moles of MO = 0.050 mol

Molar mass of MO = 2.8g/0.050mol = 56g/mol

Relative atomic mass (Ar) of the metal (M) = 56 − 16 = 40

The correct option is A) 40.

To solve this, we need to find the mole of HCl dissolved first.

Molar mass of HCl = 35.5 + 1 = 36.5
g/mol
Mole of HCl =
mass / molar mass =
0.365 g / 36.5 g/mol = 0.01 moles

Then, we can find the molarity of HCl solution:

Molarity =
mole of solute / volume of solution =
0.01 mole / 10^-3 L = 1 mol/L (M)

If we know the molarity, we can calculate the pH of solution.

Since HCl is a strong acid, it fully dissociates.
Thus, [H⁺] = 0.001 M.
pH = −log[H⁺] = −log(1 · 10⁻³) = 3

The correct option is option A) 3.0

Structural isomers (constitutional isomers) are molecules that have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangement of atoms.

To answer this question, we have to determine the molecular formula of each compound and exclude the ones which do not have the same formula.

Cyclohexane - C₆H₁₂
Methylcyclopentane - C₆H₁₂
Hexane - C₆H₁₄
Hex-1-ene - C₆H₁₂
3-methylpent-2-ene - C₆H₁₂

It can be seen that Methylcyclopentane, Hex-1-ene and 3-methyl pent-2-ene have the same molecular formula.

Secondly, determine whether the chosen compounds have different structural arrangement of atoms.

Methylcyclopentane is an alkane; Hex-1-ene is an alkene and 3-methyl pent-2-ene is an alkene with methyl group attached. Thus, it is obvious that all 3 of them have different connectivity of atoms and all are structural isomers to each other.

The correct option is E) 2, 4 and 5 only

Ionization energy is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in its gaseous state. It follows specific trends across the periodic table:

• I.E increases left to right across a period
• I.E decreases top to bottom down a group

In this question, 3 elements are compared: Li, Be and Na.

According to the trend,

Li has lower I.E than Be (across the period 2); and
Na has lower I.E than Li (down the group 1).

Thus, the order of decreasing 1st ionization energy is:
Be > Li > Na

Let's first simplify the numerator:

(9 × 10⁴)² − (10⁸) + (1.2 × 10¹¹)

We can write the term 1.2 × 10¹¹ as 1200 × 10⁸ so that every term has the same power of 10.

(81 × 10⁸) − (1 × 10⁸) + (1200 × 10⁸)

Take out 10⁸ as it is common in all the terms.

10⁸ × (81 − 1 + 1200)

So, numerator is 1280 × 10⁸ = 1.28 × 10¹¹

Now, simplifying the denominator:

10⁻¹ − 9.8 × 10⁻²

0.1 − 0.098 = 0.002

So, the denominator is 0.002 = 2 × 10⁻³

Now write the expression in the cube root:

³√(1.28 × 10¹¹ / 2 × 10⁻³) =
³√(1.28 × 10¹⁴ / 2) =
³√(0.64 × 10¹⁴) =
³√(64 × 10¹²)

So, the final expression is:
³√(64 × 10¹²) =
³√(64 × 10¹²) =
4 × 10⁴ = 40,000

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

The given values are:

• Initial velocity, u = 2 m/s
• Final velocity, v = 0 m/s (since it comes to rest)
• Distance, s = 2 m
• Resistive force, F = 4.0 N

As the force acting is constant, so the acceleration produced by it will also be constant. Hence, we can use the equation of motion to find the acceleration.

v² = u² + 2as
0² = (2)² + 2a(2)
0 = 4 + 4a
a = –4 / 4 = –1 m/s²

The negative sign shows that acceleration is acting in the opposite direction.

Since the only horizontal force is the resistive force F = 4 N, and we have found the magnitude of acceleration, we can use the formula F = ma to find the mass.

m = F / a = 4 / 1 = 4 kg

To find the area enclosed by the lines y = 0, y = 2x − 4, and y = 11 − x, we first determine their intersection points:

1. Intersection of y = 0 and y = 2x − 4:
0 = 2x − 4 → x = 2
Point is (2, 0)

2. Intersection of y = 0 and y = 11 − x:
0 = 11 − x → x = 11
Point is (11, 0)

3. Intersection of y = 2x − 4 and y = 11 − x:
2x − 4 = 11 − x
3x = 15 → x = 5
Substitute x = 5 into y = 11 − x: y = 11 − 5 = 6
Point is (5, 6)

The vertices of the triangle are (2,0), (11,0) and (5,6). To calculate the area:

Using the determinant formula:

Area = (1/2) × |x₁(y₂ − y₃) + x₂(y₃ − y₁) + x₃(y₁ − y₂)|

Substituting the points (2,0), (11,0) and (5,6):
Area = (1/2) × |2(0 − 6) + 11(6 − 0) + 5(0 − 0)|
Area = (1/2) × |−12 + 66 + 0|
Area = (1/2) × 54 = 27

Let's analyse each of the statements.

1. Using the ideal gas law PV = nRT:
Initial state: P₁V₁ = nRT₁

Final state: P₂V₂ = nRT₂
It's given that: P₂ = 2P₁, V₂ = V₁ / 2

Substituting into the equation:

P₂V₂ = nRT₂
(2P₁)(V₁ / 2) = nRT₂
P₁V₁ = nRT₂
nRT₁ = nRT₂
T₁ = T₂

Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

2. Internal Energy – For an ideal gas, internal energy U depends only on temperature.
U = (f/2) nRT

As T₁ = T₂, the internal energy will also remain the same.
Hence, Statement 2 is also correct.

3. The mean kinetic energy of gas particles is proportional to temperature.
KE_avg = (3/2) kT

As T₁ = T₂, the mean kinetic energy will also remain the same.
Hence, Statement 3 is also correct.

So, all the statements are correct.

Let’s look at the first term:

^{2x² - 9x - 18}⁄_{x² - 6x} = 2x² - 12x + 3x - 18⁄_{x(x - 6)} = 2x(x - 6) + 3(x - 6)⁄_{x(x - 6)}
= (2x + 3)(x - 6)⁄_{x(x - 6)} = 2x + 3⁄_x

Now the second term:

^{3x² + 8x - 3}⁄_{x² + 3x} = 3x² + 9x - x - 3⁄_{x(x + 3)} = 3x(x + 3) - 1(x + 3)⁄_{x(x + 3)}
= (3x - 1)(x + 3)⁄_{x(x + 3)} = 3x - 1⁄_x

Now, subtracting the second term from the first term:

^{2x + 3}⁄_x - ^{3x - 1}⁄_x = 2x + 3 - (3x - 1)⁄_x = 2x + 3 - 3x + 1⁄_x = -x + 4⁄_x = 4⁄_x - 1

The parallel arrangement consists of a 3.0 Ω resistor and a 6.0 Ω resistor. So, the equivalent resistance would be:

R_parallel =
^{R₁ × R₂}⁄_{R₁ + R₂} =
^{3 × 6}⁄_{3 + 6} =
¹⁸⁄₉ = 2 Ω

Now, the circuit consists of a a battery in series with 3.0 Ω resistor which is in turn in series with the parallel arrangement (2.0 Ω). So, the total resistance of the circuit is the sum of the resistances in series:

R_total = 3 Ω + 2 Ω = 5 Ω

Now according to Ohm’s Law, current I in a circuit is given by:

I = ^V⁄_R =
^18 V⁄_5 Ω = 3.6 A

So, the current in the battery is 3.6 amperes.

It’s given that the mean of the five numbers is 20. The formula for the mean is:

Mean = ^{Total Sum}⁄_{Number of Values}

20 = ^{Total Sum}⁄₅
Total Sum = 20 × 5 = 100

Let the five numbers arranged in ascending order be: a, b, c, d, e
Where: a ≤ b ≤ c ≤ d ≤ e

Now, the median of five numbers would be the third number (c). As median is 24:
c = 24

Thus, the numbers are: a, b, 24, d, e

To maximise the largest number e, we need to minimise the other numbers a, b, d while ensuring that all the numbers are non-zero positive integers and their total sum is 100.

The smallest possible non-zero positive integers are 1. So, set a = 1 and b = 1.
Note that d ≠ 1, as d ≥ c
Since d must be greater than or equal to the median (24), the smallest possible value for d is 24. So, set: d = 24

Now, substitute the known values into the total sum equation:
a + b + c + d + e = 100
1 + 1 + 24 + 24 + e = 100
e = 100 − 50
e = 50

So, the maximum possible value for the largest number is 50.

When a magnet moves relative to a coil, a changing magnetic flux induces a current in the coil. The direction of the induced current is determined by Lenz’s Law, which states that the induced current will always flow in a direction that opposes the change in magnetic flux.

Inserting the N-pole into the left-hand end of the coil increases the magnetic flux through the coil in a particular direction. To oppose this change, the coil generates a magnetic field in the opposite direction — this is what causes the ammeter to show a current in a certain direction.

Now, let’s evaluate each option to see which one produces the same current direction.

1. Option A: Inserting the S-pole into the right-hand end of the coil increases the magnetic flux in the same direction as inserting the N-pole into the left-hand end. Both actions result in an increase in magnetic flux in the same direction through the coil. According to Lenz’s Law, the coil responds to this change in the same way, generating a current in the same direction as before.

2. Withdrawing the N-pole from the left-hand end decreases the magnetic flux through the coil in the same direction that inserting the N-pole increased it. To oppose this decrease, the coil induces a current in the opposite direction compared to when the N-pole was inserted. Therefore, Option B is incorrect.

3. Inserting the S-pole into the left-hand end causes the magnetic flux to increase in the opposite direction compared to inserting the N-pole. The coil opposes this change by inducing a current in the opposite direction. Therefore, Option C is incorrect.

4. Withdrawing the S-pole from the right-hand end decreases the magnetic flux in the same direction as inserting the N-pole increased it. The coil reacts by inducing a current in the opposite direction to try to maintain the flux. Therefore, Option D is incorrect.

5. Inserting the N-pole into the right-hand end increases the magnetic flux in the opposite direction compared to inserting the N-pole into the left-hand end. As a result, the coil opposes this by inducing a current in the opposite direction. Therefore, Option E is incorrect.

Hence, the only action that produces a current in the same direction as inserting the N-pole into the left-hand end is: Inserting the S-pole at the magnet into the right-hand end of the coil.

We are given two concentric circles and must determine the angle θ of the shaded sector.

Let the radius of the smaller circle be r. As the radius of the larger circle is 50% greater than the smaller circle’s radius, the radius of the larger circle will be 1.5r.

Total area of the smaller circle: πr² = 36π cm²
So, r² = 36 cm² → r = 6 cm

Hence the radius of the larger circle is: 1.5 × 6 = 9 cm
Area of the larger circle = π(9)² cm² = 81π cm²

Total angle in a circle = 360°
So, area for 360° = 81π cm²
So, area for 1° = ^81π⁄₃₆₀ cm²
So, area for θ° = ^81π⁄₃₆₀ × θ cm²

It is given that the area of the shaded region is ^27π⁄₈ cm². So:

^81π⁄₃₆₀ × θ cm² = ^27π⁄₈ cm²

Cancel π: ⁸¹⁄₃₆₀ × θ = ²⁷⁄₈
Multiply both sides by 360: 81θ = ^{27 × 360}⁄₈
θ = ^{360 × 27}⁄_{81 × 8} = ³⁶⁰⁄₂₄ = 15°

The time period T of a simple pendulum is given by:

T = 2π √^l⁄_g

Where:

• T is the time period,
• l is the length of the pendulum,
• g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Given values:

• T = 2 s (since it passes the vertical position every 1 s, meaning the full oscillation is 2 s),
• g = 10 N kg^-1
• Approximate π² = 10

Now, substitute the given values and calculate the length:

2 = 2π √^l⁄₁₀ → 1 = π √^l⁄₁₀

Squaring both sides, we get:

1 = π² × ^l⁄₁₀ → 1 = 10 × ^l⁄₁₀ → l = 1

So, l = 1.0 m