IMAT 2022 · Worked Solution

IMAT 2022 Worked Solution

All 60 questions, solved and explained — General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, Biology, Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics. Verified line by line by the LOCOMOTIVE academic team.

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General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning

Current affairs, history, culture, logical and critical-thinking problems · 20 questions

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1 Logical Reasoning

Q1. We have two standard forms of treatment for depression: antidepressant medication and psychological therapy....

We have two standard forms of treatment for depression: antidepressant medication and psychological therapy. But over the last 30 years these

treatments have not reduced either the prevalence of, or the disability caused by, depression: it is likely to remain a significant and largely intractable mental health problem. There are three key issues here: access, compliance and

relapse. Access to treatment tends to be restricted to the minority of people who live in urban areas of wealthy countries. But even those who have access to care do not always comply with treatment recommendations - for many

understandable reasons. To compound all this, high numbers of people who respond well to treatment later relapse: this is one of the reasons why depression remains so widespread.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

AOne of the reasons why depression remains so widespread is the high rate of relapse.
BAccess, compliance and relapse are the three key issues in the treatment of depression.
CDepression is likely to remain a significant and largely intractable mental health problem.
DAccess to treatment for depression tends to be restricted to people in urban areas of wealthy countries.
EOver the past 30 years, treatments have not reduced the prevalence of or disability caused by depression.

Correct answer: C Depression is likely to remain a significant and largely intractable mental health problem.

Full explanation

To identify the conclusion of the passage, let's first break it down into its key components.

The passage discusses the treatment of depression, as indicated by the introductory sentence. It then highlights that despite advancements in treatment, the prevalence of depression remains high. The passage

attributes this persistence to three key issues.

A closer look at these issues reveals the phrase "for many understandable reasons,ˮ suggesting that these challenges arise from valid, inherent

factors that may be difficult to alter through external intervention. Consequently, this implies that the prevalence of depression may not decrease in the future.

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation .unnumbered}

A) One of the reasons why depression remains so widespread is the high rate of relapse.

This option presents a fact rather than the conclusion of the entire paragraph.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation .unnumbered}

B) Access, compliance and relapse are the three key issues in the treatment of depression.

This option presents a fact rather than the conclusion of the entire paragraph.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation .unnumbered}

### {#section .unnumbered}

C) Depression is likely to remain a significant and largely intractable mental health problem.

This option correctly states the conclusion of the paragraph as it is derived before.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation .unnumbered}

D) Access to treatment for depression tends to be restricted to people in urban areas of wealthy countries.

This option presents a fact rather than the conclusion of the entire paragraph.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation .unnumbered}

E) Over the past 30 years, treatments have not reduced the prevalence of or disability caused by depression.

This option presents a fact rather than the conclusion of the entire paragraph.

2 Logical Reasoning

Q2. In many countries of the world, religious and political institutions have been the main providers of mass...

In many countries of the world, religious and political institutions have been the main providers of mass education for children. Their motivation for founding schools has, of course, been to promote their own ideologies and recruit

followers. But children at school are vulnerable and impressionable, and therefore need to be protected from having ideologies imposed upon them.

Education is fundamentally incompatible with indoctrination and the promotion of particular worldviews. So the education provided in schools should be

based on scientific atheism rather than religion or politics.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?

AEveryone needs a belief system to guide them in life.
BMany adults reject the beliefs they were taught at school.
CSome governments cannot afford to fund universal education.
DScientific atheism is not an ideology.
EThe aim of education is to offer a vision of life. Answer

Correct answer: D Scientific atheism is not an ideology.

Full explanation

Assumptions are unstated fact within a paragraph that relates the argument to the conclusion.

To answer this question, we must first identify the conclusion of the paragraph. The argument says that children, being at vulnerable age,

should not be subjected to the promotion of the ideologies of religion or political institutions. The conclusion is explicably stated at the end: "education provided in schools should be based on scientific atheism ". From these facts, we can assume that scientific atheism is permitted in schools because it is not considered an ideology.

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-1 .unnumbered}

A) Everyone needs a belief system to guide them in life.

This is not stated in the paragraph (could be an assumption) but it does not relate the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is not an assumption.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-1 .unnumbered}

B) Many adults reject the beliefs they were taught at school.

It does not relate the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is not an assumption.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-1 .unnumbered}

C) Some governments cannot afford to fund universal education.

It does not relate the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is not an assumption.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-1 .unnumbered}

D) Scientific atheism is not an ideology.

This relates the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is the correct underlying assumption of the above argument.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-1 .unnumbered}

E) The aim of education is to offer a vision of life.

It does not relate the argument with the conclusion. Thus, this is not an assumption.

3 Logical Reasoning

Q3. What is the secret of success? The question is as old as philosophy itself. The Greeks argued that it boiled...

What is the secret of success? The question is as old as philosophy itself. The Greeks argued that it boiled down to the possession and exercise of certain

character traits, such as generosity and bravery. But new research emerging from social psychology suggests you have to be self- confident to be

successful. The study, involving over 200 successful people from all walks of life, comprised detailed interviews and the observation of mental and physical problem solving. The research found that all of the participants had a strong

belief in their own abilities and persevered in the face of challenges because they thought they could do it. If you want to be successful, then, you must

have faith in your own abilities.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?

AIt assumes that self-confidence is responsible for success, and not vice versa.
BIt relies on different senses of the expression 'self-confidence'.
CIt ignores the significance of other factors, such as luck.
DIt assumes that everyone can become self-confident.
EIt justifies a claim on the basis of how things were in the past. Answer

Correct answer: A It assumes that self-confidence is responsible for

Full explanation

The argument concludes that self-confidence leads to success based on a study of successful people. However, it fails to consider the possibility that success itself might have contributed to their self-confidence rather than the other way around. This is a causation vs. correlation fallacy---just because successful people tend to have self-confidence does not mean

self-confidence caused their success.

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-2 .unnumbered}

A) It assumes that self-confidence is responsible for success, and not vice versa.

This is the best statement that points out the flaw in the argument.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-2 .unnumbered}

B) It relies on different senses of the expression 'self-confidence'.

The argument does not shift between different meanings of "self- confidence"; it consistently refers to belief in one's own abilities.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-2 .unnumbered}

C) It ignores the significance of other factors, such as luck.

While other factors like luck may contribute to success, the main flaw here is the assumption about causation, not the exclusion of other factors.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-2 .unnumbered}

D) It assumes that everyone can become self-confident.

The argument does not claim that everyone can develop self- confidence; it simply states that self-confidence is necessary for success.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-2 .unnumbered}

E) It justifies a claim on the basis of how things were in the past.

The study is based on contemporary research, not historical analysis, so this does not apply.

4 Logical Reasoning

Q4. The presence of a mind requires the presence of self-consciousness.Machines do not have self- consciousness;...

The presence of a mind requires the presence of self-consciousness.

Machines do not have self- consciousness; therefore machines do not have

minds. Which one of the following most closely parallels the reasoning used in the above argument?

AThe morally best option is that which maximizes benefit. Larger charities can provide the most benefit from donations, therefore it is morally best to choose larger charities to donate to.
BTo count as an emotion, a mental state needs to have representational content. Depression does not have representational content; therefore depression is not an emotion.
CTrust and reliance are not the same thing, because trust is a mental attitude, whereas reliance is not.
DOnly true beliefs can be knowledge. My belief that the world is spherical is true, therefore I know that the world is spherical.
EThere is no obligation to keep promises to someone after they have died, since the virtue of keeping promises is to promote the promise's

Correct answer: B To count as an emotion, a mental state needs to have representational content. Depression does not have representational

Full explanation

The original argument follows this logical structure:

1. Premise: A mind requires self-consciousness.

2. Premise: Machines do not have self-consciousness.

3. Conclusion: Therefore, machines do not have minds. In other way,

If A (mind) requires B (self-consciousness),

And X (machines) do not have B (self-consciousness), Then X (machines) do not have A (minds).

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-3 .unnumbered}

A) The morally best option is that which maximises benefit. Larger charities can provide the most benefit from donations, therefore it is morally best to choose larger charities to donate to.

Premise 1: If an option is morally best, then it maximizes benefit. (If A → B)

Premise 2: Larger charities maximize benefit. (B is true)

Conclusion: Therefore, larger charities are morally best. (A is true)

It does not follow the same structure the original argument, because there is no negation of a premise.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-3 .unnumbered}

B) To count as an emotion, a mental state needs to have representational content. Depression does not have representational content, therefore depression is not an emotion.

Premise 1: If something is an emotion, then it must have representational content.

(If A → B)

Premise 2: Depression does not have representational content. (Not B) Conclusion: Therefore, depression is not an emotion. (Not A)

This follows the same structure as the original argument.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-3 .unnumbered}

C) Trust and reliance are not the same thing, because trust is a mental attitude, whereas reliance is not.

This is a definitional argument, not a conditional statement. There is no "If A → B" structure.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-3 .unnumbered}

### {#section-1 .unnumbered}

D) Only true beliefs can be knowledge. My belief that the world is spherical is true, therefore I know that the world is spherical.

Premise 1: If something is knowledge, then it must be a true belief. (If A

→ B)

Premise 2: My belief is true. (B is true)

Conclusion: Therefore, I have knowledge. (A is true)

It does not follow the same structure the original argument.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-3 .unnumbered}

E) There is no obligation to keep promises to someone after they have died, since the virtue of keeping promises is to promote the promisee's

wellbeing, and their capacity for wellbeing ceases upon death.

Premise 1: If there is an obligation to keep promises, then the promisee must have well-being. (If A → B)

Premise 2: The promisee no longer has well-being. (Not B)

Conclusion: Therefore, there is no obligation to keep promises. (Not A)

Option D is a closer logical match because it deals with defining categories like the original argument (emotion/representational content).

5 Logical Reasoning

Q5. Individuals accept deliberate harm being done to human beings and other living creatures for a variety of...

Individuals accept deliberate harm being done to human beings and other living creatures for a variety of reasons. Whether it is self-defence, the need to kill animals for food, or some other reason, many - if not most - people who consider themselves to have 'good morals' will generally agree to the

intentional killing of other beings if there is adequate justification for doing so. However, one cannot justify killing without complete knowledge of what those who are killed go through. Thus, people who choose to eat meat should find out about how the animals they consume are reared and killed. Otherwise,

people cannot truly accept full responsibility for their decision-making. Which one of the following best illustrates the principle used in the above argument?

AFarmers who need to kill crop-eating insects should find out which pesticides are the least harmful to other kinds of wildlife.
BA police officer who accidentally kills someone in the line of duty should be willing to tell the victim's family about the circumstances of the death.
CA lawyer prosecuting an individual for murder should be aware of any serious difficulties in the life of the defendant in the years leading up to the crime.
DScientists who use dead animal specimens for the purpose of an experiment should be certain there are no alternative research methods available.
ECitizens who support imposing the death penalty in some criminal cases should educate themselves about the procedures used to administer it.

Correct answer: E Citizens who support imposing the death penalty in some criminal cases should educate themselves about the procedures used to administer it.

Full explanation

The passage argues that people who accept or support intentional harm (e.g., eating meat) must fully understand the consequences of that harm (e.g., how animals are reared and killed) in order to take full responsibility for their decisions. And if a person supports an action that causes harm, they must educate themselves about the details of that harm to fully take responsibility.

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-4 .unnumbered}

A) Farmers who need to kill crop-eating insects should find out which pesticides are the least harmful to other kinds of wildlife.

This is about minimizing harm rather than accepting responsibility for a harmful choice.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-4 .unnumbered}

B) A police officer who accidentally kills someone in the line of duty should be willing to tell the victim's family about the circumstances of the death.

The focus here is on informing others rather than educating oneself about harm before making a decision.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-4 .unnumbered}

C) A lawyer prosecuting an individual for murder should be aware of any serious difficulties in the life of the defendant in the years leading up to the crime.

This is about understanding the defendant's background, not about taking responsibility for supporting harm.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-4 .unnumbered}

D) Scientists who use dead animal specimens for the purpose of an experiment should be certain there are no alternative research methods available.

This is about avoiding harm, if possible, not about educating oneself about harm before accepting it.

### {#section-2 .unnumbered}

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-4 .unnumbered}

E) Citizens who support imposing the death penalty in some criminal cases should educate themselves about the procedures used to administer it.

This is the best match to the principle used in the argument.

6 Problem Solving

Q6. Six sacks each consist of one kind of fruit: apples, oranges or limes. The weights of the sacks are:8kg, 13...

Six sacks each consist of one kind of fruit: apples, oranges or limes. The weights of the sacks are:

8kg, 13 kg, 17 kg, 18 kg, 22 kg, 24 kg

The total weight of all the apples is twice the total weight of all the limes, and there is only one sack of oranges.

What is the weight of the sack of oranges?

A24 kg
B22 kg
C18 kg
D17 kg
E13 kg Answer

Correct answer: A 24 kg

Full explanation

Let:

A be the total weight of apples. L be the total weight of limes.

O be the weight of the single sack of oranges. Given: A = 2L

The total weight of all sacks;

8+13+17+18+22+24 = 102 kg A + L + O = 102 kg

2L + L + O = 102 kg

3L + O = 102 kg

Substitute possible values of O from the options and check whether the resultant L is an integer.

It can be determined that only the 18 kg and 24 kg options yield integer values.

If O = 18,

3L + 18 = 102

3L = 84

L = 28 (Integer, possible)

Check if L (Total weight of lime) = 28 can be formed by the remaining weights: 8, 13, 17, 22, 24. No valid combination.

If O = 24,

3L + 24 = 102

3L = 78

L = 26

Check if L (Total weight of lime) = 26 can be formed by the remaining weights: 8, 13, 17, 18, 22.

Possible combination: 8 + 18 = 26. This is valid.

Therefore, total weight of lime (L) = 26 kg (8 + 18),

total weight of apple (A) = 2L = 52 kg (22+17+23), and total weight of orange (O) = 24 kg.

- Verify total: 52+26+24 = 102 kg.

- Thus, the weight of the sack of oranges is A) 24kg

7 Problem Solving

Q7. There are 10 students in a class and they like visiting each other. A visit means that one student visits the...

There are 10 students in a class and they like visiting each other. A visit means that one student visits the home of another student. We know that each

student in the class has visited the same number of students. No two students in the class have both visited each other.

What is the maximum number of students that a student in this class could have visited?

Correct answer: B 4 Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

This question can be solved by using the combination formula because it is

about selection of objects (home) where the order does not matter (no two students in the class have both visited each other).

The number of ways to choose 'rʼ (2 homes) out of 'nʼ distinct objects (10 homes) is given by:

nCr

n! r!(n−r)!

10! 2!(10−2)!

10! 2!(8!)

= 9 ⋅ 5 = 45 total visits

For each student: 45 = 4.5 visits

Since the answer must be an integer, each students visits a maximum of 4 other students.

Thus, the correct option is option B) 4.

8 Problem Solving

Q8. I am planning a one-way flight and I can fly with one of the following five companies.None of the three...

I am planning a one-way flight and I can fly with one of the following five companies.

None of the three maximum dimensions can be exceeded.

I have two bags, one of size 52 x 40 x 22 cm and one of size 40 x 30 x 20 cm.

I am happy to take either bag with me. I need to have priority boarding. Which company should I choose if I wish to spend as little as possible?

AWassAir
BBritAir
CMistAir
DTowAir
EEasAir Answer

Correct answer: A WassAir

Full explanation

To answer this question, we can first eliminate the airline that does not have priority boarding, which is EasAir.

Next, we can rule out any airlines with a maximum cabin bag size smaller than what is required. With priority boarding, the passenger's smaller bag, measuring 40 x 30 x 20 cm, is acceptable for all four remaining airlines.

We can calculate the cost now.

BritAir costs 53+25 = 78

WassAir costs 59+15 = 74

TowAir costs 72+5 = 77

MistAir costs 60+20 = 80

Therefore, the most affordable option for the passenger would be WassAir.

9 Problem Solving

Q9. Volunteers for a coastal conservation charity have cleaned beaches since the late 1990s and have recorded the...

Volunteers for a coastal conservation charity have cleaned beaches since the late 1990s and have recorded the number of items collected. Three items found on the beach by volunteers which have seen an increase are shown in the table below.

Year	Cigarette butts	Plastic bottles	Straws and stirrers
1997	1,547,346	263,982	249,202
2017	2,412,151	1,578,834	749,360

Which one of the following graphs could show the percentage increase in items collected between 1997 and 2017?

Correct answer: B Option B

Full explanation

The percentage increase in each item collected between 1997 and 2017 must be calculated: percentage increase = [(new value − old value) / old value] × 100%.

Item	1997	2017	% increase
Cigarette butts	1,547,346	2,412,151	≈ 60%
Plastic bottles	263,982	1,578,834	≈ 500%
Straws and stirrers	249,202	749,360	≈ 200%

The only chart whose bars correctly reflect this pattern — cigarette butts increasing the least, plastic bottles increasing roughly 8–9 times as much as cigarette butts, and straws/stirrers increasing to a level clearly between the other two — is option B.

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

10 Problem Solving

Q10. On a volcanic island, scientists plan to install sensors to monitor ground motions and predict volcanic...

On a volcanic island, scientists plan to install sensors to monitor ground motions and predict volcanic activity. The outline of the island is shown below. The shaded area in the middle is the volcano.

A sensor cannot be installed on the volcano itself but can be installed on any one of the other squares. Each sensor takes measurements from the square on which it is installed and the surrounding squares. See an example below.

What is the minimum number of sensors that need to be installed to take measurements of the entire area of the island (excluding the volcano)?

Correct answer: C 20 Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

$IMAT 2022 question 10 figure$

If the sensor is placed in these areas, measurements of the entire area of the island can be taken while using the minimum number of sensors.

# {#section-3 .unnumbered}

11 General Knowledge

Q11. Which one of the following spoke to the United Nations on 12th July 2013 to call for a worldwide access to...

Which one of the following spoke to the United Nations on 12th July 2013 to call for a worldwide access to education ?

AMalala Yousafzai
BBenazir Bhutto
CKofi Annan
DBarack Obama
EAung San Suu Kyi Answer

Correct answer: A Malala Yousafzai

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-5 .unnumbered}

On 12th July 2013, Malala Yousafzai delivered a powerful speech at the United Nations calling for worldwide access to education, particularly for girls. This day, her 16th birthday, was later declared "Malala Day" by the UN in recognition of her advocacy.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-5 .unnumbered}

Former Prime Minister of Pakistan, but was assassinated in 2007.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-5 .unnumbered}

Former UN Secretary-General, but not known for a speech on this date.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-5 .unnumbered}

Former US President, but did not give this speech.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-5 .unnumbered}

Burmese activist and Nobel laureate, but not linked to this UN speech.

# {#section-4 .unnumbered}

12 General Knowledge

Q12. Which of the following dancing traditions is NOT correctly matched to its place of origin?

Which of the following dancing traditions is NOT correctly matched to its place of origin?

AHaka - New Zealand
BSamba — Brazil
CFlamenco - Argentina
DBharatnatyam - India
EMambo - Cuba Answer

Correct answer: C Flamenco - Argentina

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-6 .unnumbered}

The Haka is a traditional war dance of the Māori people of New Zealand.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-6 .unnumbered}

Samba is a famous Brazilian dance and music genre, closely associated with Carnival.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-6 .unnumbered}

Flamenco originated in Spain, particularly in the Andalusia region, not Argentina.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-6 .unnumbered}

Bharatanatyam is a classical Indian dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, India.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-6 .unnumbered}

Mambo originated in Cuba, blending Afro-Cuban and jazz influences.

# {#section-5 .unnumbered}

# {#section-6 .unnumbered}

# {#section-7 .unnumbered}

# {#section-8 .unnumbered}

# {#section-9 .unnumbered}

13 General Knowledge

Q13. Which one of the following novels was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1953?

Which one of the following novels was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1953?

AThe Old Man and the Sea by Ernest Hemingway
BThe Great Gatsby by Francis Scott Fitzgerald
CThe Catcher in the Rye by J. D. Salinger
DOn the Road by Jack Kerouac
EMoby Dick by Herman Melville Answer

Correct answer: A The Old Man and the Sea by Ernest Hemingway

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-7 .unnumbered}

The Old Man and the Sea (1952) was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1953. It is one of Hemingwayʼs most famous works and contributed to his Nobel Prize in Literature in 1954.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-7 .unnumbered}

The Great Gatsby (1925) by F. Scott Fitzgerald was not recognized with a Pulitzer and gained major recognition only later.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-7 .unnumbered}

The Catcher in the Rye (1951) by J.D. Salinger did not win a Pulitzer Prize.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-7 .unnumbered}

On the Road (1957) by Jack Kerouac Did not win a Pulitzer Prize.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-7 .unnumbered}

Moby-Dick (1851) by Herman Melville Published long before the Pulitzer Prize existed (established in 1917).

14 General Knowledge

Q14. Which of the following European languages is NOT categorised as a Slavic language?

Which of the following European languages is NOT categorised as a Slavic language?

ACzech
BUkrainian
CLithuanian
DSlovene
EPolish Answer

Correct answer: C Lithuanian

Full explanation

Slavic languages belong to the Indo-European language family and are divided into three branches:

1. West Slavic: Czech, Slovak, Polish

2. East Slavic: Russian, Ukrainian, Belarusian

3. South Slavic: Slovene, Serbian, Croatian, Bulgarian, etc.

Among the given options, only Lithuanian is NOT a Slavic language. It belongs to the Baltic language family, which is also part of the Indo-European family but forms a separate branch alongside Latvian.

### {#section-10 .unnumbered}

15 General Knowledge

Q15. Which of the following philosophers is considered one of the founders of analytic philosophy?

Which of the following philosophers is considered one of the founders of analytic philosophy?

AHans Jonas
BGottfried Wilhelm Leibniz
CMichael Foucault
DBertrand Russell
EFrancis Bacon Answer

Correct answer: D Bertrand Russell

Full explanation

Analytic philosophy is a tradition that emphasizes logical analysis,

language, and clarity of argument, emerging in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-8 .unnumbered}

Hans Jonas was a philosopher of existentialism and bioethics, not analytic philosophy.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-8 .unnumbered}

Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz (B) was an early modern philosopher and mathematician but lived long before analytic philosophy emerged.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-8 .unnumbered}

Michel Foucault was a continental philosopher, associated with postmodernism and critical theory.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-8 .unnumbered}

Bertrand Russell (D) is one of the founders of analytic philosophy, along with G.E. Moore and Ludwig Wittgenstein. His work in logic, philosophy of language, and epistemology---especially in Principia Mathematica (co- authored with Alfred North Whitehead)---laid the foundation for analytic philosophy.

### {#section-11 .unnumbered}

### {#section-12 .unnumbered}

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-8 .unnumbered}

Francis Bacon (E) was a Renaissance philosopher, known for developing the scientific method, not analytic philosophy.

16 General Knowledge

Q16. Amongst the following modern-day countries, which never had any region form part of the Roman Empire?

Amongst the following modern-day countries, which never had any region form part of the Roman Empire?

APortugal
BEgypt
CBelgium
DSlovenia
EDenmark

Correct answer: E Denmark

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-9 .unnumbered}

Portugal (A) was part of the Roman province Lusitania.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-9 .unnumbered}

### {#section-13 .unnumbered}

### Egypt (E) was a key Roman province after being annexed by Augustus in 30 BCE. {#egypt-e-was-a-key-roman-province-after-being-annexed-by-augustus-in-30-bce. .unnumbered}

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-9 .unnumbered}

Belgium (C) was part of the province Gallia Belgica.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-9 .unnumbered}

Slovenia (D) was part of Pannonia and Noricum.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-9 .unnumbered}

The Roman Empire expanded across Europe, North Africa, and the Middle East, but it never fully incorporated Denmark into its territory.

17 General Knowledge

Q17. Which one of the following chemical elements was discovered by Marie and Pierre Curie?

Which one of the following chemical elements was discovered by Marie and Pierre Curie?

APolonium
BUranium
CBoron
DHydrogen
ENitrogen Answer

Correct answer: A Polonium

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-10 .unnumbered}

Marie and Pierre Curie discovered Polonium (Po) in 1898 while researching radioactivity in uranium ores. They named it after Poland, Marie Curie's

homeland, as a symbolic gesture for Polish independence.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-10 .unnumbered}

Uranium (B) was discovered by Martin Heinrich Klaproth in 1789.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-10 .unnumbered}

Boron (C) was discovered by Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac and Louis-Jacques Thénard in 1808.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-10 .unnumbered}

Hydrogen was discovered by Henry Cavendish in 1766.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-10 .unnumbered}

Nitrogen (E) was discovered by Daniel Rutherford in 1772.

18 General Knowledge

Q18. Which of the following European countries does NOT recognise a denomination of Christianity as its state...

Which of the following European countries does NOT recognise a denomination of Christianity as its state religion?

AMalta
BGreece
CSpain
DDenmark
EEngland Answer

Correct answer: C Spain

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-11 .unnumbered}

Malta recognizes Roman Catholicism as the state religion, as stated in its Constitution.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-11 .unnumbered}

Greece recognizes Eastern Orthodoxy (Greek Orthodox Church) as the prevailing religion in its Constitution.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-11 .unnumbered}

Spain does NOT have an official state religion. While Catholicism is historically dominant, Spain's 1978 Constitution established secularism, meaning the state does not officially recognize any religion.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-11 .unnumbered}

Denmark has the Evangelical Lutheran Church as the state church, which is supported by the government supports.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-11 .unnumbered}

England has the Church of England (Anglicanism) as the official state church, with the British monarch as its Supreme Governor.

### {#section-14 .unnumbered}

19 General Knowledge

Q19. Which one of the following succeeded Jean-Claude Juncker as President of the European Commission on 1...

Which one of the following succeeded Jean-Claude Juncker as President of the European Commission on 1 December 2019?

AUrsula von der Leyen
BChristine Legarde
CAlexis Tsipras
DMario Draghi
EJosé Manuel Barroso Answer

Correct answer: A Ursula von der Leyen

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-12 .unnumbered}

### {#section-15 .unnumbered}

Jean-Claude Juncker served as President of the European Commission from 1 November 2014 to 30 November 2019. He was

succeeded by Ursula von der Leyen, who took office on 1 December 2019.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-12 .unnumbered}

Christine Lagarde became President of the European Central Bank (ECB) in 2019, not the president of the European Commission.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-12 .unnumbered}

Alexis Tsipras was the Prime Minister of Greece (2015--2019).

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-12 .unnumbered}

Mario Draghi was the President of the ECB (2011--2019) and later Prime Minister of Italy (2021--2022).

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-12 .unnumbered}

José Manuel Barroso (E) was the President of the European Commission before Juncker (2004--2014).

### {#section-16 .unnumbered}

20 General Knowledge

Q20. Which of the following countries never had a female prime minister in the 20th century?

Which of the following countries never had a female prime minister in the 20th century?

AIndia
BUnited Kingdom
CPakistan
DSweden
EIsrael Answer

Correct answer: D Sweden

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-13 .unnumbered}

Never had a female Prime Minister in the 20th century. The first female Prime Minister, Magdalena Andersson, took office in 2021.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-13 .unnumbered}

Margaret Thatcher became the first female Prime Minister in 1979.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-13 .unnumbered}

Benazir Bhutto became the first female Prime Minister in 1988.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-13 .unnumbered}

Indira Gandhi became the first female Prime Minister in 1966.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-13 .unnumbered}

Golda Meir became the first female Prime Minister in 1969.

Biology

Cell biology, genetics, molecular biology & human physiology · 15 questions

Expand all

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21 Nucleic acids and inheritance

Q21. Which diagram shows the correct hydrogen bonds between bases of a section of DNA?

Which diagram shows the correct hydrogen bonds between bases of a section of DNA?

Correct answer: D Option D

Full explanation

According to the Watson-Crick model of DNA, adenine (A) forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine (T) and only thymine, while guanine (G) forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosine (C) and only cytosine. In shorthand, A pairs with T and G pairs with C. Additionally, the phosphate groups and deoxyribose sugars are positioned alternately along the sugar-phosphate backbone on the outside of the double helix, with the nitrogenous bases facing inward, pairing specifically. The only option that features the correct hydrogen bonding pattern and correct sugar-

phosphate positioning is option D.

22 Enzymes

Q22. The effect of temperature and pH on the activity of each of the enzymes P and Q was investigated.When...

The effect of temperature and pH on the activity of each of the enzymes P and Q was investigated.

When investigating the effect of temperature, the optimum pH for each enzyme was used. This was 4.5 for P and 9.5 for Q.

When investigating the effect of pH, the optimum temperature for each enzyme was used. This was 55°C for P and 25°C for Q.

Using this information, which graph could show the results from one of these investigations?

Correct answer: C Option C

Full explanation

Five graphs are given and the task is to find the one whose plotted peaks match the enzymes' actual optimal pH or temperature values given in the question.

Option A (activity vs temperature): shows optimal temperatures of around 45°C for P and 35°C for Q. This does not match the given data (55°C for P, 25°C for Q). False.

Option B (activity vs temperature): shows optimal temperatures of around 25°C for P and 50°C for Q. This does not match the given data. False.

Option C (activity vs temperature): shows optimal temperatures of around 55°C for P and 25°C for Q. This correctly matches the given data. True.

Option D (activity vs pH): shows an optimal pH of around 9 for P and 5 for Q. This does not match the given data (4.5 for P, 9.5 for Q). False.

Option E (activity vs pH): shows an optimal pH of around 4.5 for P and 10.5 for Q. This does not match the given data. False.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

23 Gene expression : Transcription

Q23. Which of the following could be found within a molecule that has just been made by transcription in a healthy...

Which of the following could be found within a molecule that has just been made by transcription in a healthy human pancreatic cell?

1. adenine

2. peptide bonds

3. phosphodiester bonds

4. ribose

A2 and 4 only
B1,2 and 3 only
C1, 3 and 4 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
E2 and 3 only Answer

Correct answer: C 1, 3 and 4 only

Full explanation

Transcription is the synthesis of RNA using information in the DNA.

RNA is composed of ribose sugar attached to nitrogenous base (through N-glycosidic bond) and phosphate group (through phosphodiester bond). Nitrogenous bases can be adenine, guanine, cytosine or uracil.

The only correct choices among the given options are:

1. Adenine, 3. Phosphodiester bonds and 4. Ribose Thus, the correct option is C) 1, 3 and 4 only

24 Cellular transport : Diffusion

Q24. The following diagram shows a U-tube at the start of an experiment. It contains two solutions, separated by a...

The following diagram shows a U-tube at the start of an experiment. It contains two solutions, separated by a membrane. Both solutions contain sucrose, glucose and maltose in water. The membrane allows the passage of water and all three sugars.

Which option correctly identifies what happens within the first few seconds?

AThere will be net movement of maltose from side A to B.
BThere will be net movement of sucrose from side A to B.
CThere will be net movement of glucose from side B to A.
DSolution level will increase in side B and decrease in side A.
EThere will be no net movement of sugars. Answer

Correct answer: A There will be net movement of maltose from side A to

Full explanation

Since the membrane in this case is permeable to both water and sugars, diffusion of sugars will occur until equilibrium is reached, rather than osmosis being the dominant process. Osmosis (water movement) occurs primarily when the membrane is selectively permeable, meaning it allows water to pass but restricts solute movement.

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-15 .unnumbered}

Maltose is more concentrated on side A than on side B. Therefore, it will move from side A to side B. This option accurately describes the process.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-15 .unnumbered}

Sucrose is more concentrated on side B than on side A. Therefore, it will

move from side B to A. However, the option says it will move from side A to

B. Thus, this option is false.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-15 .unnumbered}

Glucose is more concentrated on side A than on side B. Therefore, it will

move from side A to side B. However, the option says it will move from side B to A. Thus, this option is false.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-15 .unnumbered}

Osmosis (water movement) occurs primarily when the membrane

is selectively permeable, meaning it allows water to pass but restricts solute movement. Since only water movement can change the solution level and osmosis is not the primary process, this option is false.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-15 .unnumbered}

Since 2 solutions are separated by a membrane which allows the passage of water and all three sugars and there is the concentration gradient, the solutes (primarily) will move down the concentration gradient until equilibrium is reached.

25 Cellular structure and functions

Q25. Glycoproteins are formed from amino acids and carbohydrates.What is the order in which organelles are used to...

Glycoproteins are formed from amino acids and carbohydrates.

What is the order in which organelles are used to make membrane-associated glycoproteins?

AGolgi apparatus → Vesicles → Rough endoplasmic reticulum
BLysosomes → Rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi apparatus
CRough endoplasmic reticulum → Vesicles → Golgi apparatus
DRough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi apparatus → Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
EGolgi apparatus → Lysosomes → Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Correct answer: C Rough endoplasmic reticulum → Vesicles → Golgi

Full explanation

Rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesize secretory proteins like glycoproteins together with ribosomes on their surface.

Then, secretory proteins depart from the ER wrapped in the membranes of

vesicles and travel to the cis face of the Golgi apparatus where the proteins are modified and stored and then sent to other destinations.

Lysosomes arise by budding from the Golgi apparatus, containing hydrolytic enzymes and membrane proteins that were originally synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). The hydrolytic enzymes are transported from the RER to the Golgi, where they are

modified and packaged into lysosomes. While the lysosomal membrane does contain glycoproteins to protect against enzyme activity, membrane- associated glycoproteins are not the primary functional component of

lysosomes. Instead, lysosomes are specialized for intracellular digestion and waste processing, not for the secretion or transport of glycoproteins

Thus, the order for the synthesis of glycoproteins is

Rough endoplasmic reticulum → Vesicles → Golgi apparatus (Option C)

26 Cellular respiration

Q26. Which row shows the site of alcohol fermentation in yeast and the site of lactic acid fermentation in human...

Which row shows the site of alcohol fermentation in yeast and the site of lactic acid fermentation in human muscle cells?

ARow 1
BRow 4
CRow 2
DRow 3
ERow 5 Answer

Correct answer: D Row 3

Full explanation

Fermentation is a way of harvesting chemical energy without using either oxygen or any electron transport chain---in other words, without cellular respiration. Fermentation is an extension of glycolysis along with NAD+ regeneration that allows continuous generation of ATP by the substrate- level phosphorylation of glycolysis.

There are 2 types of fermentation.

1. Lactic acid fermentation (occur in human muscle cells)

2. Alcoholic fermentation (occur in yeast)

Both occur in the cytoplasm of cells and anerobic process. Mitochondria is the site for the aerobic steps of the cellular respiration and fermentation process does not occur in it.

Thus, the correct option is Option D) Row 3

27 Photosynthesis

Q27. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is/are correct?1. The site of the light-dependent...

Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is/are correct?

1. The site of the light-dependent reactions is the thylakoids, and the products of these reactions include ATP and oxygen.

2. The site of the light-independent reactions is the stroma, and the products of these reactions include carbohydrates and carbon dioxide.

3. Chlorophyll that is embedded in the chloroplast outer membrane uses light to split water molecules.

A2 and 3 only
B3 only
C1 only
D1,2 and 3
E1 and 2 only

Correct answer: C 1 only

Full explanation

Photosynthesis is the process in which light energy is harnessed and used to drive the synthesis of organic compounds.

Photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts of plants and algae.

Chloroplast structure : A chloroplast has two membranes surrounding a dense fluid called the stroma. Suspended within the stroma is a third membrane system, made up of sacs called thylakoids, which segregates the stroma from the thylakoid space inside these sacs. In some places, thylakoid sacs are stacked in columns called grana (singular, granum).

Chlorophyll, the green pigment that gives leaves their color, resides in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast.

Photosynthesis process involve 2 main steps;

1. the light-dependent reactions (occur in thylakoids, products : ATP, NADPH and O₂)

2. the light-independent reactions or Calvin cycle (occur in the stroma, products : Glucose)

Among the given statements, only the first one is true.

The second statement is false because carbon dioxide is not a product; rather, it is used as a reactant.

The third statement is false because chlorophyll is embedded in the thylakoid membrane, not in the outer membrane of the chloroplast.

Thus, the correct option is option C) 1 only.

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28 Mitosis

Q28. The photomicrograph shows a section of a plant root tip with cells showing different stages of the cell...

The photomicrograph shows a section of a plant root tip with cells showing different stages of the cell cycle. Five of the cells have been labelled.

Which cell (1-5) shows anaphase?

Correct answer: C 2 Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

The photomicrograph of plant cells with different stages of cell cycle

(Mitotic phase and Interphase) is given.

Mitosis is conventionally broken down into five stages:

1. Prophase - chromosomes condense, spindle fibers form, nuclear envelope breaks down.

2. Metaphase - chromosomes align at the metaphase plate.

3. Anaphase - sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.

4. Telophase - nuclear envelopes reform, chromosomes decondense.

5. Cytokinesis - cytoplasm divides, forming two daughter cells. From can the given photomicrograph, it can be noted that

Label no.1 indicates the metaphase because the chromosomes are all at the metaphase plate.

Label no.2 indicates the anaphase because the chromatids of each chromosome have

separated, and the daughter chromosomes are moving to the ends of the cell.

Label no.3 indicates the interphase because the nuclear envelope is intact, and no separated and condensed chromosomes can be seen.

Label no.4 indicates the cytokinesis because the cell plate, which will divide the cytoplasm in two, is growing toward the perimeter of the parent cell.

Label no. 5 indicates the prophase because the chromosomes are condensing

and the nucleolus is beginning to disappear.

Thus, the correct label which indicates the anaphase is label no.2 (Option C)

# {#section-32 .unnumbered}

# {#section-33 .unnumbered}

29 Classical genetics

Q29. A male child has haemophilia. Neither parent has the condition. The parents have a second child.Which of the...

A male child has haemophilia. Neither parent has the condition. The parents have a second child.

Which of the following statements could be correct about this family?

1. There is a 25% chance that the second child is a boy with haemophilia

2. There is a 75% chance that the second child does not show the condition

3. There is a 50% chance that the mother is a carrier

[Assume no other mutations.]

A1 and 2 only
B3 only
C2 only
D2 and 3 only
E1 only Answer

Correct answer: A 1 and 2 only

Full explanation

Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder , meaning the defective gene is located on the X chromosome.

Let Xₑ be the hemophilic gene.

For a daughter to have hemophilia, she must inherit two copies of the defective gene (XₑXₑ).

For a son, only one copy is needed (XₑY) since males have only one X chromosome.

It is given that the male child has haemophilia (XₑY). Since the father contributes the Y chromosome, the Xₑ must have come from the mother.

Thus, the parents' genotypes can be determined as: Father: XY (unaffected)

Mother: XXₑ (carrier)

Possible genotypes of the second child

Female child: 100% chance of being XXₑ (carrier, but unaffected). Male child: 50% chance of being XY (healthy) or XₑY (hemophilic). In other words, only 1 out of 4 children will have the disease gene.

Since the probability of having a male or female child is ½, the chance that the second child is a boy with hemophilia is ½ x ½ = ¼ = 25 %

The probability that the second child does not have hemophilia is 1 — ¼ = ¾ = 75%

Since the first child has hemophilia, it is 100% certain that the mother is a carrier (XXₑ).

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2 (option D)

30 Pedigree chart

Q30. There is an inherited condition in cats that leads to them having six toes rather than five toes on each paw....

There is an inherited condition in cats that leads to them having six toes rather than five toes on each paw. The allele that causes six toes is dominant. The pedigree diagram shows the inheritance of this condition in a family of cats.

Three of the cats have been labelled.

Which of the following statements about this inheritance is/are correct?

1. Cat P could be homozygous for the condition.

2. Over two generations, 12 cats were produced in the cross-breeding.

3. Breeding cat Q with cat R could produce 3 offspring, each with a different genotype.

A1 and 3 only
B3 only
C2 only
D1 only
E1 and 2 only Answer

Correct answer: B 3 only

Full explanation

The pedigree diagram shows the inheritance of a dominant condition in a family of cats. Black dots represent cats with six toes (dominant condition).

### Analysis of the given statements {#analysis-of-the-given-statements .unnumbered}

1. Cat P could be homozygous for the condition.

This statement is impossible because if cat P is homozygous (2 six toes genes), all of the offsprings will have the condition because 1 gene each is contributed by each parent.

2. Over two generations, 12 cats were produced in the cross-breeding.

The pedigree shows 3 generations of cat family and on the second

generation, 6 cats are produced and on the third generation, 4 cats are produced. Thus, the total is 10, not 12 for two offspring generations.

3. Breeding cat Q with cat R could produce 3 offspring, each with a different genotype.

Since cat P is heterozygous, parents of cat Q and R are also

heterozygous and the cat Q and R will also be heterozygous. Thus, if genes of cat Q and cat R are crossed, it is true that there can be 3

offsprings, each with a different genotype (homozygous six toes, heterozygous and homozygous five toes)

Thus, the correct option is option B) 3 only

# {#section-34 .unnumbered}

31 Cell membrane

Q31. The diagrams each show a section of the cell surface membrane to illustrate the fluid mosaic model. Which...

The diagrams each show a section of the cell surface membrane to illustrate the fluid mosaic model. Which diagram is most accurate?

Key: black shape represents cholesterol; grey shape represents protein.

Correct answer: E Option E

Full explanation

The cell membrane is primarily composed of a phospholipid bilayer, where hydrophilic (polar) heads face outward, interacting with the extracellular and intracellular environments, while hydrophobic (nonpolar) tails face inward, forming a barrier to most water-soluble substances.

The membrane is also embedded with proteins (integral and peripheral, function in transport, signalling and structural support), cholesterol molecules (help maintain membrane fluidity and stability), and carbohydrates, which attach to lipids (forming glycolipids) or proteins (forming glycoproteins) on the extracellular surface only, playing key roles in cell recognition and signalling.

Option A is false: it shows cholesterol spanning the entire phospholipid bilayer like a transmembrane protein. Cholesterol is actually embedded within just one leaflet of the bilayer.

Option B is false: it shows the carbohydrate complexes on the intracellular side, when they are actually found only on the extracellular surface.

Option C is false: it shows the phospholipids the wrong way round — hydrophilic heads should face outward toward the aqueous environment, with hydrophobic tails facing inward, away from water.

Option D is false, for the same reason as option C: the phospholipid orientation is reversed.

Option E correctly shows the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

32 Physiology : circulatory system

Q32. Which of the following changes occur during contraction of the atria in a healthy human heart?

Which of the following changes occur during contraction of the atria in a healthy human heart?

Arow 1
Brow 5
Crow 2
Drow 3
Erow 4 Answer

Correct answer: B row 5

Full explanation

During the contraction of the atria, a phase called atrial systole, the muscles of the atrial walls contract. This contraction pushes blood from the atria into the ventricles. As the atria contract:

The volume of the atria decreases, because the atrial walls are squeezing inward.

Atrial pressure increases due to the reduced volume and the force of contraction.

The atrioventricular (AV) valves --- the tricuspid valve on the right side and the mitral (bicuspid) valve on the left side --- are open at this stage. This allows the blood to flow smoothly from the atria into the ventricles.

At this point, the semilunar valves (leading to the pulmonary artery and aorta) remain closed, ensuring blood only moves into the ventricles.

Atrial contraction completes the filling of the ventricles with blood before the ventricles themselves contract (ventricular systole).

33 Physiology : excretory system

Q33. The diagram shows a glomerulus and part of a nephron in the kidney of a healthy human.Which of the following...

The diagram shows a glomerulus and part of a nephron in the kidney of a healthy human.

Which of the following cause(s) water to move from the glomerulus into the tubule?

1. An increase in pressure caused by the left ventricle of the heart

2. The effect of blood proteins on the direction of osmosis

3. An increase in pressure of the liquid in the tubule

A1 only
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D2 only
E3 only Answer

Correct answer: A 1 only

Full explanation

The movement of water from the glomerulus into the tubules is influenced by three pressures:

#### Glomerular Hydrostatic Pressure

This is the blood pressure inside the glomerular capillaries.

It favors filtration by pushing water and solutes out of the capillaries into Bowmanʼs capsule.

Source: Mainly the contraction of the left ventricle of the heart.

55 mmHg (value in humans).

1. Capsular Hydrostatic pressure

Pressure exerted by the fluid already present in Bowmanʼs capsule and tubules.

Opposes filtration by pushing back against the incoming fluid from the glomerulus.

15 mmHg (value in humans).

2. Oncotic pressure

Caused by plasma proteins (like albumin) that remain in the capillaries.

This opposes filtration by pulling water back into the capillaries.

30 mmHg (value in humans).

### Analysis of the given conditions : {#analysis-of-the-given-conditions .unnumbered}

1. An increase in pressure caused by the left ventricle of the heart : This condition can increase the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus, pushing water to move from the glomerulus to the tubules (filtration)

2. The effect of blood proteins on the direction of osmosis : Proteins are the major contributor of the oncotic pressure, and this pressure pulls water back into the glomerular capillaries, opposing filtration.

3. An increase in pressure of the liquid in the tubule : This condition opposes filtration by reducing the pressure gradient between the glomerulus and Bowmanʼs capsule.

Thus, only the statement 1 (Option A) correctly describes a condition that causes water to move from the glomerulus into the tubules.

34 Physiology : endocrine system

Q34. Drug Q reduces the release of vasopressin (ADH) into the bloodstream of a healthy human.Which organ releases...

Drug Q reduces the release of vasopressin (ADH) into the bloodstream of a healthy human.

Which organ releases ADH into the blood, and what is the effect of drug Q on the concentration of urea in the urine?

[Assume that the production of urea remains constant.]

ARow 2
BRow 5
CRow 3
DRow 4
ERow 1 Answer

Correct answer: D Row 4

Full explanation

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary, where it is released in response to low blood pressure or dehydration.

ADH acts on the collecting tubules of the kidneys, increasing water reabsorption by inserting more aquaporin channels into the tubule membranes.

This reduces water excretion (increase water reabsorption), making the urine more concentrated.

Any stimulus or drug that inhibits ADH release has the opposite effect, leading to reduced water reabsorption and more dilute urine.

Since Drug Q reduces ADH release, it will:

Decrease water reabsorption in the collecting tubules. Increase water excretion, producing dilute urine.

Lower the concentration of urea in the urine due to increased water content.

The only row that correctly identifies the organ that releases ADH and its effect is row 4 (Option D).

35 Physiology : nervous system

Q35. In the nervous system, which of the following pairs work in opposition to each other to control their target...

In the nervous system, which of the following pairs work in opposition to each other to control their target organs?

ASympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
BBrain and spinal cord
CSensory and motor pathways
DReflex and voluntary pathways
ECentral and peripheral nervous systems

Correct answer: A Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

### Nervous system overview {#nervous-system-overview .unnumbered}

Nervous system is generally divided into 2 main parts;

Central nervous system (process information and coordinates response) Brain and spinal cord

Peripheral nervous system

Enteric nervous system (controls the GI tract)

Somatic nervous system (controls voluntary movements and transmits sensory information)

Autonomic nervous system (regulate involuntary function) Sympathetic nervous system (Fight or flight response)

Parasympathetic nervous system (Rest and digest response)

Nerve pathways are generally divided into 2 parts; Sensory (Afferent) pathways

Motor (Efferent) pathways

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-17 .unnumbered}

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and work antagonistically to regulate involuntary functions. They have opposing effects on target organs, e.g;

activating the sympathetic pathway increases the heart rate while activating the parasympathetic pathway decreases the heart rate. Thus, this option is true.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-17 .unnumbered}

The brain and spinal cord are parts of the CNS and work together, not in opposition. Thus, this option is false

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-17 .unnumbered}

Sensory pathways transmit signals to the CNS, while motor pathways carry commands from the CNS to effectors, but they do not directly oppose each other. Thus, this option is false.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-17 .unnumbered}

Reflex pathways control automatic, rapid responses, while voluntary pathways control conscious movements, but they do not act in direct opposition. Thus, this option is false.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-17 .unnumbered}

The CNS and PNS work together, not against each other. Thus, this option is false.

Chemistry

General, inorganic, organic & biochemistry · 15 questions

Expand all

Collapse all

36 Acid-Base

Q36. Which of the following acids is/are weak?1. H₂CO₃ (aq)2. HCOOH (aq)3. HNO₃ (aq)

Which of the following acids is/are weak?

1. H₂CO₃ (aq)

2. HCOOH (aq)

3. HNO₃ (aq)

A2 and 3 only
B3 only
C2 only
D1 only
E1 and 2 only

Correct answer: E 1 and 2 only Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

Common weak acids are H₂CO₃, HNO₂, H₂SO₃, H₃PO₄ and organic acids

such as HCOOH, CH₃COOH.

Common strong acids are substances that completely dissociate into their ions in aqueous solutions, releasing a high concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺). The most important strong acids include hydrochloric acid (HCl), hydrobromic acid (HBr), hydroiodic acid (HI), nitric acid (HNO₃), sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄)---for its first proton---and perchloric acid (HClO₄). Because they ionize fully, strong acids have no equilibrium between the undissociated and dissociated forms in water, unlike weak acids which only partially dissociate.

Thus, from the given acids, the weak acids are 1) H₂CO₃ and 2) HCOOH (Option E)

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37 Atomic structure

Q37. Which of the following particles has the same number of neutrons as the⁷⁹₃₅Br⁻ ion?

Which of the following particles has the same number of neutrons as the

⁷⁹₃₅Br⁻ ion?

A⁷⁸₃₄Se
B⁸¹₃₅Br²⁺
C⁸¹₃₅Br⁻
D⁸²₃₆Kr
E¹⁰¹₄₄Ru⁺

Correct answer: A ⁷⁸₃₄Se Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

Number of neutrons = Mass number (A) - atomic number (Z)

⁷⁹₃₅Br⁻ represents a bromide ion (Br⁻) with:

Mass number (A) = 79 (superscript number) Atomic number (Z) = 35 (subscript number) Number of neutrons = 79-35 = 44

We have to find the particle that has the same number of neutrons as the

⁷⁹₃₅Br⁻ ion

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-18 .unnumbered}

⁷⁸₃₄Se

Mass number (A) = 79

Atomic number (Z) = 35

Number of neutrons = 79-35 = 44

It has the same number of neutrons as the ⁷⁹₃₅Br⁻ ion.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-18 .unnumbered}

⁸¹₃₅Br²⁺

Mass number (A) = 81

Atomic number (Z) = 35

Number of neutrons = 81-35 = 46

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-18 .unnumbered}

⁸¹₃₅Br⁻

Mass number (A) = 81

Atomic number (Z) = 35

Number of neutrons = 81-35 = 46

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-18 .unnumbered}

⁸²₃₆Kr

Mass number (A) = 82

Atomic number (Z) = 36

Number of neutrons = 82-36 = 46

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-18 .unnumbered}

¹⁰¹₄₄Ru⁺

mass number (A) = 101

atomic number (Z) = 44. Number of neutrons = 101-44 = 57

# {#section-41 .unnumbered}

# {#section-42 .unnumbered}

38 Basic concepts of chemistry

Q38. Equal volumes of liquids are mixed as the following pairs:1. Heptane and hexane2. Water and methanol3. ...

Equal volumes of liquids are mixed as the following pairs:

1. Heptane and hexane

2. Water and methanol

3. Hexane and water

Which of the pairs form(s) a homogenous mixture?

A1 only
B1,2 and 3
C3 only
D1 and 2 only
E2 and 3 only Answer

Correct answer: D 1 and 2 only

Full explanation

Mixture: a mixture consists of several different, chemically pure

substances. Mixtures do not have constant composition. The mixture can be homogenous, and heterogenous.

Homogenous mixture: Homogenous mixtures have the same composition throughout the sample. The compositions of such mixtures cannot be seen under a powerful microscope. They are called

solutions. Examples are air, seawater, gasoline, etc.

Heterogenous mixture: heterogenous mixtures consist two or more phases, which have different compositions.

For a mixture to be homogeneous, its components must have similar water solubilities, allowing them to mix uniformly.

#### Analysis of the given mixtures {#analysis-of-the-given-mixtures .unnumbered}

1. Heptane and hexane: Since both are hydrophobic molecules, they can mix well with each other forming a homogenous mixture.

2. Water and methanol: Both are hydrophilic molecules. They dissolve completely in each other forming a homogenous mixture.

3. Hexane and water: Hexane is hydrophobic while water is hydrophilic.

Due to their differing solubilities, they do not mix forming a heterogenous mixture.

Thus, only mixtures 1 and 2 are homogenous. (Option D)

# {#section-43 .unnumbered}

# {#section-44 .unnumbered}

39 Organic chemistry

Q39. Consider the following general equation that describes one way of synthesizing a particular type of BIOFUEL,...

Consider the following general equation that describes one way of synthesizing a particular type of BIOFUEL, represented by Y.

X represents a neutral (uncharged) organic molecule involved in the reaction.

Which of the following statements about the reaction are correct?

1. Addition of an enzyme is an essential condition

2. Y is an ester

3. X contains an alcohol group

Anone of them
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1 and 3 only
E1, 2 and 3 Answer

Correct answer: C 2 and 3 only

Full explanation

The reactant on the left consists of a triester of glycerol (triglyceride). The product includes three molecules of Y and one molecule of glycerol (HO- CH₂-CHOH-CH₂OH). This suggests that the reaction is transesterification, where triglycerides react with an alcohol (X) to produce esters (Y) and glycerol.

This type of reaction is commonly used in biodiesel production, where vegetable oils (triglycerides) react with methanol (or ethanol) in the presence of a catalyst.

In biodiesel production, transesterification is typically catalyzed by acid, base, or enzymes (lipases). While enzymes can be used, they are not

essential.

Thus, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only. (Option C)

# {#section-45 .unnumbered}

# {#section-46 .unnumbered}

40 Chemical bonding and structure

Q40. Which of the following substances in pure liquid form has/have hydrogen bonds between their molecules?1. ...

Which of the following substances in pure liquid form has/have hydrogen bonds between their molecules?

1. H₂O

2. HF

3. CH₄

A1 and 2 only
B2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1 only
E3 only

Correct answer: A 1 and 2 only Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

Hydrogen bonding occurs when a hydrogen atom, covalently bonded to a

highly electronegative atom such as nitrogen (N), oxygen (O), or fluorine

(F) --- known as the hydrogen bond donor --- interacts with a lone pair of electrons on another highly electronegative atom, which acts as the hydrogen bond acceptor. The donor provides the hydrogen atom with a partial positive charge (δ⁺), while the acceptor must have a lone pair of electrons to interact electrostatically with the hydrogen. For hydrogen bonding to occur, it is essential that hydrogen is directly bonded to N, O, or F, because their high electronegativity and small atomic size create the strong polarity necessary for hydrogen bond formation. This interaction significantly influences the physical properties of substances, such as increasing boiling points and solubility in polar solvents like water.

Among the given molecules:

1. H₂O (water) contains hydrogen bonded to oxygen, allowing hydrogen bonding between its molecules.

2. HF (hydrofluoric acid) contains hydrogen bonded to fluorine, which also enables hydrogen bonding.

3. CH₄ (methane) does not contain hydrogen bonded to F, O or N. Thus, hydrogen bonding cannot occur.

The correct option is option A) 1 and 2 only

41 Chemical bonding and structure

Q41. In which of the following does the central atom share all its outer shell electrons?1. BF₃2. NH₄⁺3. ...

In which of the following does the central atom share all its outer shell electrons?

1. BF₃

2. NH₄⁺

3. СО₂

[Atomic numbers: H = 1; B = 5; C = 6; N = 7; 0 = 8; F = 9]

A1 and 2 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3.
ENone of them Answer

Correct answer: D 1,2 and 3

Full explanation

In BF₃, the central atom is boron (B), which has the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p¹, giving it three valence electrons. Boron shares all three of its

outer electrons with fluorine atoms, forming three single covalent bonds in the BF₃ molecule.

In NH₄⁺, the central atom is nitrogen (N), with the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p³, meaning it has five valence electrons. Nitrogen shares four electrons with four hydrogen atoms and uses its lone pair to form a

coordinate covalent bond with a proton (H⁺), resulting in the ammonium ion (NH₄⁺). Thus, nitrogen utilizes all of its outer shell electrons in bonding.

In СО₂, the central atom is Carbon (C). It has an electron configuration of

1s²2s²2p², meaning it has 4 outer electrons or valence electrons. Carbon shares all of its outer electrons with 2 oxygen atoms by forming СО₂ through 2 double covalent bonds.

In CO₂, the central atom is carbon (C), which has the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p², providing four valence electrons. Carbon shares all four electrons by forming two double covalent bonds with two oxygen atoms, completing its octet.

Since the central atoms of all the given molecules share all of its outer shell electrons, the correct option is D) 1,2 and 3

42 Oxidation-Reduction

Q42. In which of the following reactions does HCl act as a reducing agent?

In which of the following reactions does HCl act as a reducing agent?

AAl₂O₃ + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂O
BZn + 2HCl → H₂ + ZnCl₂
CNH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl
DMnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + Cl₂ + 2H₂O
EMg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O

Correct answer: D MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + Cl₂ + 2H₂O

Full explanation

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-19 .unnumbered}

Al₂O₃ + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂O

In this reaction, no species undergoes oxidation or reduction. The oxidation state of each atom remains unchanged in both the reactants and the

products. Therefore, this is not a redox reaction, making this statement false.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-19 .unnumbered}

Zn + 2HCl → H₂ + ZnCl₂

In this reaction, H is reduced because its oxidation state decreases from +1 to 0. Zn is oxidized because its oxidation state increases from 0 to +2.

In a redox equation the substance that is reduced is the oxidizing agent, the substance that is oxidized is the reducing agent.

Thus, in this reaction, HCl is the oxidizing agent, not the reducing agent.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-19 .unnumbered}

NH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl

In this reaction, no species undergoes oxidation or reduction. The oxidation state of each atom remains unchanged in both the reactants and the

products. Therefore, this is not a redox reaction.

### {#section-47 .unnumbered}

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-19 .unnumbered}

MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + Cl₂ + 2H₂O

In this reaction, Mn is reduced because its oxidation state decreases from

+4 to +2. Cl is oxidized because its oxidation state increases from -1 to 0 in Cl₂. Thus, in this reaction, HCl is the reducing agent.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-19 .unnumbered}

Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + 2H₂O

In this reaction, no species undergoes oxidation or reduction. The oxidation state of each atom remains unchanged in both the reactants and the

products. Therefore, this is not a redox reaction.

43 Equilibrium

Q43. Hydrogen sulfide gas was shaken with a solution of sodium hydroxide in a closedsystem. An equilibrium was...

Hydrogen sulfide gas was shaken with a solution of sodium hydroxide in a closed

system. An equilibrium was rapidly established. H₂S (g) + 2OH⁻ (aq)⇌ S²⁻ (aq) + 2H₂O (l)

The experiment was repeated as the same temperature and pressure, but one

additional substance was added to the equilibrium mixture.

Adding which of these substances, on its own, will increase the number of molecules of H₂S present at equilibrium?

1. Hydrochloric acid

2. Solid potassium hydroxide

3. Sodium sulfide

A2 and 3 only
B2 only
C1 only
D1 and 3 only
E1 and 2 only Answer

Correct answer: D 1 and 3 only

Full explanation

To increase the number of H₂S molecules, we need to shift the reaction equilibrium to the left.

Analysis of the given substances

1. Hydrochloric acid: HCl dissociates in solution, increasing the concentration of H⁺ ions. The H⁺ ions can react with OH⁻, reducing its concentration. Since OH⁻ is a reactant, its removal shifts the equilibrium left, increasing H₂S. Thus, adding HCl increases H₂S at equilibrium.

2. Solid potassium hydroxide: KOH dissociates into K⁺ and OH⁻, increasing the OH⁻ concentration. Higher OH⁻ shifts the

equilibrium right, consuming H₂S. Thus, adding KOH decreases H₂S, so it does not help.

3. Sodium sulfide: Na₂S dissociates into Na⁺ and S²⁻ ions. Increasing S²⁻ shifts the equilibrium left, forming more H₂S. Thus, adding Na₂S increases H₂S at equilibrium.

Adding Hydrochloric acid (HCl) and Sodium sulfide (Na₂S) will increase the number of molecules of H₂S present at equilibrium.

Thus, the correct option is option D) 1 and 3 only.

44 Chemical bonding and structure

Q44. Barium sulfate is insoluble in water.Aqueous solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulfate are mixed. Which...

Barium sulfate is insoluble in water.

Aqueous solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulfate are mixed. Which of the following equations is the SIMPLEST ionic equation for the reaction that occurs ?

A2BaCl (aq) + Na₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl (aq)
BBa²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s)
CBa²⁺(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2Na⁺(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq)
D2Ba⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → Ba₂SO₄(s)
EBaCl₂(aq) +Na₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl (aq) Answer

Correct answer: B Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s) Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

First, we need to determine the chemical formulas of the molecules

involved.

Barium has 2 valence electrons and forms a Ba²⁺ ion. Sulfate ion (SO₄²⁻) has a charge of -2. Sodium has 1 valance electron and forms an Na⁺ ion. Chlorine has 7 valence electrons and form a Cl⁻ ion.

Barium sulfate - BaSO₄ Barium chloride - BaCl₂ Sodium sulfate - Na₂SO₄ Sodium chloride - NaCl

The full molecular equation of the given reaction would be : BaCl₂(aq) +Na₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl (aq)

The full ionic equation would be :

Ba²⁺(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2Na(aq) + 2Cl⁻(aq)

To get the simplest ionic equation, remove spectator ions (Na⁺ and Cl⁻, which appear on both sides) :

Ba²⁺(aq) + SO₄²⁻(aq) → BaSO₄(s)

### Option A Explanation: {#option-a-explanation-20 .unnumbered}

We can exclude this option because the molecular formula of barium chloride is wrong.

### Option B Explanation: {#option-b-explanation-20 .unnumbered}

This correctly states the simplest ionic equation.

### Option C Explanation: {#option-c-explanation-20 .unnumbered}

This is the full ionic equation.

### Option D Explanation: {#option-d-explanation-20 .unnumbered}

We can exclude this option because the molecular formula of barium sulfate is wrong.

### Option E Explanation: {#option-e-explanation-20 .unnumbered}

This is the full molecular equation.

45 Basic concepts of chemistry

Q45. Which of the following separation techniques can be used to obtain liquid ethanal from an aqueous mixture of...

Which of the following separation techniques can be used to obtain liquid ethanal from an aqueous mixture of ethanol, ethanal and ethanoic acid

1. Filtration

2. Fractional distillation

3. Centrifugation

A3 only
B2 only
C1 and 2 only
D1 and 3 only
E1 only Answer

Correct answer: B 2 only

Full explanation

Filtration is used to separate heterogeneous mixtures.

Fractional distillation is used to separate mixtures containing compounds with different boiling points.

Centrifugation is used to separate substances based on their density and weight differences.

Since the given mixture is a homogeneous aqueous solution and the

components have different boiling points---ethanal (21°C), ethanol (78°C), and ethanoic acid (118°C)---fractional distillation can be used to separate the components or isolate the desired ethanal.

46 Stoichiometry

Q46. A metal oxide, MO, reacts with sulfuric acid according to the following equation:MO + H₂SO₄ MSO₄ + H₂O2.8g of...

A metal oxide, MO, reacts with sulfuric acid according to the following equation:

MO + H₂SO₄ MSO₄ + H₂O

2.8g of the metal oxide requires 25 mL of 2.0 mol L⁻¹ sulfuric acid for complete reaction.

What is the relative atomic mass (Ar) of the metal?

(Ar value: O = 16)

A112
B96
C40
D56
E24

Correct answer: C 40 Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

From the given information, we can first determine the moles of

H₂SO₄ used in the reaction. Since the balanced equation shows a 1:1 molar ratio between MO and H₂SO₄, we can then deduce the moles of MO that reacted.

Using the calculated moles of MO and the given mass of the metal oxide, we can determine its molar mass. Finally, by subtracting the mass of oxygen (16 g/mol) from the molar mass of MO, we can find the relative atomic mass (Ar) of the metal.

Given :

Volume of H₂SO₄ solution = 25 mL = 0.025 L Concentration of H₂SO₄ = 2.0 mol L⁻¹

mole of H₂SO₄ = volume x molar volume = 0.025ml ⋅ 2molL−1 =0.05moles

From the balanced equation, 1 mole of MO reacts with 1 mole of H₂SO₄.

Thus, moles of MO = moles of H₂SO₄ = 0.050 moles.

Molar mass of MO = mass / mole = 2.8g/0.05 mole = 56 g/mol

Thus, Relative atomic mass (Ar) of the metal (M)

= Molar mass of MO - Ar of Oxygen

= 56 - 16

= 40

The correct option is option C) 40.

# {#section-48 .unnumbered}

47 Acid-Base

Q47. 0.365 g of hydrogen chloride is dissolved in sufficient water to make 10 litres of solution.What is the pH of...

0.365 g of hydrogen chloride is dissolved in sufficient water to make 10 litres of solution.

What is the pH of the HCl (aq) solution formed, at 25°C?

(A values: H = 1.0; Cl = 35.5)

A2.0
B4.0
C0.01
D3.0
E1.0

Correct answer: D 3.0 Detailed Explanations

Full explanation

To solve this, we need to find the mole of HCl dissolved first.

Molar mass of HCl = 35.5 + 1 = 36.5

g mol

Mole of HCl =

mass molar mass

0.365 g

36.5 gmol⁻¹

## = 0.01 moles {#moles .unnumbered}

## {#section-49 .unnumbered}

Then, we can find the molarity of HCl solution :

mole of solute volume of solution

0.01 mole

10 L

## = 1 ⋅ 10⁻³ ^mol (M) {#mol-m .unnumbered}

## {#section-50 .unnumbered}

If we know the molarity, we can calculate the pH of solution. Since HCl is a strong acid, it fully dissociates:

Thus, [H⁺] = 0.001 M.

## pH = −log[H⁺] = −log[1 ⋅ 10⁻³] = 3 {#ph-logh-log1-103-3 .unnumbered}

The correct option is option D) 3.0

48 Chemical bonding and structure

Q48. Phosphorus is in Group V of the Periodic Table. What is the shape and the bond angle for the PH₄⁺ ion?

Phosphorus is in Group V of the Periodic Table. What is the shape and the bond angle for the PH₄⁺ ion?

ARow 1
BRow 3
CRow 5
DRow 2
ERow 4 Answer

Correct answer: A Row 1

Full explanation

In the PH₄⁺ ion, phosphorus (P) has 5 valence electrons. It forms four

covalent bonds with hydrogen atoms by sharing four electrons and loses its remaining electron to form a cation, resulting in no lone pairs around the central atom. With four bonding regions and no lone pairs, the electron domain geometry is tetrahedral, leading to a tetrahedral molecular shape. According to VSEPR theory, a tetrahedral molecule has bond angles of 109.5°. Therefore, the shape of PH₄⁺ is tetrahedral with bond angles of

109.5°, corresponding to Row 1.

49 Organic chemistry

Q49. Which of the following organic compounds are structural isomers of each other?1. Cyclohexene2. Methyl...

Which of the following organic compounds are structural isomers of each other?

1. Cyclohexene

2. Methyl cyclopentane

3. Hexane

4. Hex-1-ene

5. 3-methylpent-2-ene

A2 and 3 only
B2 and 4 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 4 and 5 only
E2, 4 and 5 only Answer

Correct answer: E 2, 4 and 5 only

Full explanation

Structural isomers (constitutional isomers) are molecules that have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangement of atoms.

To answer this question, we must determine the molecular formula of each compound and exclude the ones that do not have the same formula.

Cyclohexane - C₆H₁₀ Methylcyclopentane - C₆H₁₂ Hexane - C₆H₁₄

Hex-1-ene - C₆H₁₂

3-methylpent-2-ene - C₆H₁₂

Methyl cyclopentane, Hex-1-ene and 3-methyl pent-2-ene has the same molecular formula.

Secondly, determine whether the chosen compounds have different structural arrangement of atoms.

Methyl cyclopentane is an alkane; Hex-1-ene is an alkene and 3-methyl

pent-2-ene is an alkene with methyl group attached. Thus, it is obvious that all 3 of them have different connectivity of atoms and all are structural isomers to each other.

The correct option is E) 2, 4 and 5 only

50 The periodic system of elements

Q50. Which of the following lists the given elements in order of DECREASING first ionisation energies?(Atomic...

Which of the following lists the given elements in order of DECREASING first ionisation energies?

(Atomic numbers: Li = 3; Be = 4; Na = 11)

ABe, Li, Na
BBe, Na, Li
CNa, Be, Li
DLi, Be, Na
ELi, Na, Be Answer

Correct answer: A Be, Li, Na

Full explanation

Ionization energy is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in its gaseous state. It follows specific trends across the periodic table:

I.E increases left to right across a period

I.E decreases top to bottom down a group

In this question, 3 elements are compared: Li, Be and Na. According to the trend,

Li has lower I.E than Be (across the period 2); and Na has lower I.E than Li (down the group 1).

Thus, the order of decreasing 1st ionization energy is Be>Li>Na

Physics & Mathematics

Mechanics, electricity, thermodynamics, algebra & geometry · 10 questions

Expand all

Collapse all

51 Algebra

Q51. Evaluate 3√{[(9 × 10⁴)² − 10⁸ + 1.2 × 10¹¹] / [10⁻¹ − 9.8 × 10⁻²]}

Evaluate ³√{[(9 × 10⁴)² − 10⁸ + 1.2 × 10¹¹] / [10⁻¹ − 9.8 × 10⁻²]}

A400
B40 000
C8000
D10 000
E100 000

Correct answer: B 40 000

Full explanation

First simplify the numerator, writing every term as a multiple of 10⁸: (9 × 10⁴)² = 81 × 10⁸; 10⁸ = 1 × 10⁸; and 1.2 × 10¹¹ = 1200 × 10⁸.

Numerator = (81 − 1 + 1200) × 10⁸ = 1280 × 10⁸ = 1.28 × 10¹&sup9;.

Now simplify the denominator: 10⁻¹ − 9.8 × 10⁻² = 0.1 − 0.098 = 0.002 = 2 × 10⁻³.

So the expression inside the cube root is (1.28 × 10¹&sup9;)/(2 × 10⁻³) = 0.64 × 10¹⁴ = 64 × 10¹².

³√(64 × 10¹²) = ³√64 × 10¹²⁄³ = 4 × 10⁴ = 40 000.

Hence, the correct answer is (B).

52 Dynamics

Q52. A block sliding along a flat horizontal surface at an initial velocity of 2.0 m/s experiences a constant...

A block sliding along a flat horizontal surface at an initial velocity of 2.0 m/s experiences a constant resistive force of 4.0 N that brings it to rest in a distance of 2.0 m.
What is the mass of the block?

A2.0 kg
B0.50 kg
C4.0 kg
D0.25 kg
E8.0 kg

Correct answer: C 4.0 kg

Full explanation

Using v² = u² + 2as with u = 2 m/s, v = 0 m/s (comes to rest), s = 2 m: 0² = 2² + 2a(2), so 0 = 4 + 4a, giving a = −1 m/s² (the negative sign shows the acceleration opposes the motion).

The only horizontal force is the resistive force F = 4.0 N, so by F = ma, m = F/a = 4.0/1.0 = 4.0 kg.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

53 Coordinate Geometry

Q53. Find the area enclosed by the three lines y = 0, y = 2x − 4, and y = 11 − x.

Find the area enclosed by the three lines y = 0, y = 2x − 4, and y = 11 − x.

A39
B3
C22½
D37½
E27

Correct answer: E 27

Full explanation

Find the three intersection points. y = 0 and y = 2x − 4 meet where 0 = 2x − 4, x = 2, giving (2, 0). y = 0 and y = 11 − x meet where 0 = 11 − x, x = 11, giving (11, 0). y = 2x − 4 and y = 11 − x meet where 2x − 4 = 11 − x, so 3x = 15, x = 5, y = 6, giving (5, 6).

The triangle's vertices are (2, 0), (11, 0), (5, 6). Using the determinant/shoelace formula: Area = ½|x₁(y₂ − y₃) + x₂(y₃ − y₁) + x₃(y₁ − y₂)| = ½|2(0 − 6) + 11(6 − 0) + 5(0 − 0)| = ½|−12 + 66 + 0| = ½(54) = 27.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

54 Ideal Gas

Q54. A fixed mass of an ideal gas is compressed slowly so that its volume halves and its pressure doubles.Which of...

A fixed mass of an ideal gas is compressed slowly so that its volume halves and its pressure doubles.
Which of the following statements about the gas after this change is/are correct?
1. The final temperature of the gas is the same as before the change.
2. The final internal energy of the gas is the same as before the change.
3. The final mean kinetic energy of the particles of the gas is the same as before the change.

A1 and 3 only
B1 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Enone of them

Correct answer: D 1, 2 and 3

Full explanation

By the ideal gas law PV = nRT: initially P₁V₁ = nRT₁, finally P₂V₂ = nRT₂, with P₂ = 2P₁ and V₂ = V₁/2. Substituting: (2P₁)(V₁/2) = nRT₂, so P₁V₁ = nRT₂ = nRT₁, giving T₁ = T₂. Statement 1 is correct.

For an ideal gas the internal energy U depends only on temperature (U = ⅓f•nRT), so since T₁ = T₂, the internal energy is unchanged. Statement 2 is correct.

The mean kinetic energy of the gas particles is also proportional only to temperature (KE₋ℭⁿ = ₃⁄₂kT), so it too is unchanged. Statement 3 is correct.

All three statements are correct. Hence, the correct answer is (D).

55 Algebra

Q55. Which of the following is a simplification of (2x² − 9x − 18)/(x² − 6x) − (3x² + 8x − 3)/(x² + 3x)?

Which of the following is a simplification of (2x² − 9x − 18)/(x² − 6x) − (3x² + 8x − 3)/(x² + 3x)?

A4/x − 1
B2/x − 1
C2 − 1/x
D4/x − 2
E4 − x

Correct answer: A 4/x − 1

Full explanation

Factorise the first fraction: (2x² − 9x − 18)/(x² − 6x) = (2x² − 12x + 3x − 18)/[x(x − 6)] = [2x(x − 6) + 3(x − 6)]/[x(x − 6)] = (2x + 3)(x − 6)/[x(x − 6)] = (2x + 3)/x.

Factorise the second fraction: (3x² + 8x − 3)/(x² + 3x) = (3x² + 9x − x − 3)/[x(x + 3)] = [3x(x + 3) − 1(x + 3)]/[x(x + 3)] = (3x − 1)(x + 3)/[x(x + 3)] = (3x − 1)/x.

Subtracting: (2x + 3)/x − (3x − 1)/x = [2x + 3 − (3x − 1)]/x = (−x + 4)/x = 4/x − 1.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

56 Electricity

Q56. An 18 V battery and a 3.0 Ω resistor are connected in series with each other, and in series with a parallel...

An 18 V battery and a 3.0 Ω resistor are connected in series with each other, and in series with a parallel arrangement of a 3.0 Ω resistor and a 6.0 Ω resistor.
What is the current in the battery? [Assume that the battery has no internal resistance.]

A1.5 A
B3.0 A
C3.6 A
D5.1 A
E9.0 A

Correct answer: C 3.6 A

Full explanation

The parallel arrangement of the 3.0 Ω and 6.0 Ω resistors has combined resistance R = (R₁R₂)/(R₁ + R₂) = (3 × 6)/(3 + 6) = 18/9 = 2.0 Ω.

This 2.0 Ω combination is in series with the other 3.0 Ω resistor, so the total circuit resistance is 3.0 + 2.0 = 5.0 Ω.

By Ohm's Law, I = V/R = 18 V / 5.0 Ω = 3.6 A.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

57 Statistics

Q57. The mean of five non-zero positive integers is 20. The median is 24.What is the maximum possible value for...

The mean of five non-zero positive integers is 20. The median is 24.
What is the maximum possible value for the largest number?

Correct answer: E 50

Full explanation

Since the mean of the five numbers is 20, their total sum is 5 × 20 = 100.

Arrange the numbers in ascending order a ≤ b ≤ c ≤ d ≤ e. The median (the middle, third number) is c = 24, so the numbers are a, b, 24, d, e with a + b + 24 + d + e = 100.

To maximise e, minimise a, b and d subject to the ordering constraints. The smallest possible non-zero positive integers for a and b are both 1 (since a ≤ b ≤ c, this is allowed). Since d ≥ c = 24, the smallest possible value for d is 24.

So 1 + 1 + 24 + 24 + e = 100, giving e = 100 − 50 = 50.

Hence, the correct answer is (E).

58 Magnetism

Q58. A long single coil of wire is connected directly to an ammeter which is used to indicate the direction of the...

A long single coil of wire is connected directly to an ammeter which is used to indicate the direction of the current in the wire. As the N-pole of a bar magnet is inserted into the left-hand end of the coil, the ammeter indicates a current in a certain direction.
Which other action, performed separately, produces a current in the same direction?

Ainserting the S-pole of the magnet into the right-hand end of the coil
Bwithdrawing the N-pole of the magnet from the left-hand end of the coil
Cinserting the S-pole of the magnet into the left-hand end of the coil
Dwithdrawing the S-pole of the magnet from the right-hand end of the coil
Einserting the N-pole of the magnet into the right-hand end of the coil

Correct answer: A inserting the S-pole of the magnet into the right-hand end of the coil

Full explanation

By Lenz's Law, the induced current always flows in a direction that opposes the change in magnetic flux causing it. Inserting the N-pole into the left-hand end increases the flux through the coil in a particular direction, and the coil responds with a current in a certain (reference) direction.

Inserting the S-pole into the right-hand end also increases the magnetic flux through the coil in that same direction (a south pole entering from the right has the same effect on flux direction as a north pole entering from the left), so the coil responds with a current in the same direction. This makes option A correct.

Withdrawing the N-pole from the left-hand end decreases the flux in that direction, producing the opposite current (B incorrect). Inserting the S-pole into the left-hand end increases the flux in the opposite direction, also producing the opposite current (C incorrect). Withdrawing the S-pole from the right-hand end decreases the flux in the original direction, again producing the opposite current (D incorrect). Inserting the N-pole into the right-hand end increases the flux in the opposite direction, producing the opposite current (E incorrect).

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

59 Geometry

Q59. The diagram shows two concentric circles, both with centre O. The angle of the shaded sector is θ°. [diagram...

The diagram shows two concentric circles, both with centre O. The angle of the shaded sector is θ°. [diagram not to scale]
The radius of the larger circle is 50% greater than the radius of the smaller circle. The total area of the smaller circle is 36π cm². The area of the shaded sector is 27π/8 cm².
What is the value of θ?

A15
B8₁₁⁄₁₆
C16₁₀⁄₈
D22½
E30

Correct answer: A 15

Full explanation

Let the smaller circle's radius be r. Since πr² = 36π, r² = 36, so r = 6 cm. The larger circle's radius is 50% greater: 1.5 × 6 = 9 cm, so its area is π(9)² = 81π cm².

The shaded sector (of the larger circle) has area (θ/360) × 81π cm². Setting this equal to the given area: (81π/360) × θ = 27π/8.

θ = (27π/8) × (360/81π) = 360/(8 × 3) = 360/24 = 15.

Hence, the correct answer is (A).

60 Simple Harmonic Motion

Q60. The simple pendulum of a tall clock swings freely backwards and forwards so that it passes through the...

The simple pendulum of a tall clock swings freely backwards and forwards so that it passes through the vertical position at 1.0 second intervals.
Assuming that the motion of the pendulum is simple harmonic, what is the length of the pendulum? [Take the gravitational field strength to be 10 N/kg, and take π² to be 10.]

A1.7 m
B0.25 m
C1.0 m
D2.5 m
E3.3 m

Correct answer: C 1.0 m

Full explanation

The pendulum passes through the vertical position twice per full oscillation (once each way), so passing through it every 1.0 s means the period is T = 2.0 s.

The time period of a simple pendulum is T = 2π√(l/g). Substituting T = 2 s and g = 10 N/kg: 2 = 2π√(l/10), so 1 = π√(l/10).

Squaring both sides: 1 = π²(l/10). Using π² = 10: 1 = 10(l/10) = l, so l = 1.0 m.

Hence, the correct answer is (C).

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IMAT 2022 Worked Solution

General Knowledge & Logical Reasoning

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Q6. Six sacks each consist of one kind of fruit: apples, oranges or limes. The weights of the sacks are:8kg, 13...

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Q7. There are 10 students in a class and they like visiting each other. A visit means that one student visits the...

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Q8. I am planning a one-way flight and I can fly with one of the following five companies.None of the three...

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Q9. Volunteers for a coastal conservation charity have cleaned beaches since the late 1990s and have recorded the...

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Q11. Which one of the following spoke to the United Nations on 12th July 2013 to call for a worldwide access to...

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Q12. Which of the following dancing traditions is NOT correctly matched to its place of origin?

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Q13. Which one of the following novels was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1953?

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Q14. Which of the following European languages is NOT categorised as a Slavic language?

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Q15. Which of the following philosophers is considered one of the founders of analytic philosophy?

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Q16. Amongst the following modern-day countries, which never had any region form part of the Roman Empire?

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Q17. Which one of the following chemical elements was discovered by Marie and Pierre Curie?

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Q18. Which of the following European countries does NOT recognise a denomination of Christianity as its state...

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Q19. Which one of the following succeeded Jean-Claude Juncker as President of the European Commission on 1...

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Q20. Which of the following countries never had a female prime minister in the 20th century?

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Biology

Q21. Which diagram shows the correct hydrogen bonds between bases of a section of DNA?

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Q22. The effect of temperature and pH on the activity of each of the enzymes P and Q was investigated.When...

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Q23. Which of the following could be found within a molecule that has just been made by transcription in a healthy...

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Q24. The following diagram shows a U-tube at the start of an experiment. It contains two solutions, separated by a...

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Q25. Glycoproteins are formed from amino acids and carbohydrates.What is the order in which organelles are used to...

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Q26. Which row shows the site of alcohol fermentation in yeast and the site of lactic acid fermentation in human...

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Q27. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is/are correct?1. The site of the light-dependent...

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Q28. The photomicrograph shows a section of a plant root tip with cells showing different stages of the cell...

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Q29. A male child has haemophilia. Neither parent has the condition. The parents have a second child.Which of the...

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Q30. There is an inherited condition in cats that leads to them having six toes rather than five toes on each paw....

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Q31. The diagrams each show a section of the cell surface membrane to illustrate the fluid mosaic model. Which...

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Q32. Which of the following changes occur during contraction of the atria in a healthy human heart?

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Q33. The diagram shows a glomerulus and part of a nephron in the kidney of a healthy human.Which of the following...

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Q34. Drug Q reduces the release of vasopressin (ADH) into the bloodstream of a healthy human.Which organ releases...

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Q35. In the nervous system, which of the following pairs work in opposition to each other to control their target...

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Chemistry

Q36. Which of the following acids is/are weak?1. H₂CO₃ (aq)2. HCOOH (aq)3. HNO₃ (aq)

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Q37. Which of the following particles has the same number of neutrons as the⁷⁹₃₅Br⁻ ion?

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Q38. Equal volumes of liquids are mixed as the following pairs:1. Heptane and hexane2. Water and methanol3. ...